Q.1 Which of the following best defines hyperemia?
Increased blood outflow
Decreased blood inflow
Active increase in blood flow due to arteriolar dilation
Passive accumulation of deoxygenated blood
Explanation - Hyperemia is an active process caused by increased inflow of blood, usually due to arteriolar dilation such as in inflammation or exercise.
Correct answer is: Active increase in blood flow due to arteriolar dilation
Q.2 Congestion differs from hyperemia because it is:
An active process
Associated with increased inflow
A passive process due to impaired venous outflow
Always physiological
Explanation - Congestion is passive, caused by impaired venous drainage, and leads to accumulation of deoxygenated blood, unlike active hyperemia.
Correct answer is: A passive process due to impaired venous outflow
Q.3 Nutmeg liver is a pathological finding associated with:
Chronic passive congestion of the liver
Acute hepatitis
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Fatty change in the liver
Explanation - Nutmeg liver results from chronic right-sided heart failure, causing passive congestion and mottled liver appearance.
Correct answer is: Chronic passive congestion of the liver
Q.4 Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with pulmonary edema?
Left-sided heart failure
Right-sided heart failure
Portal hypertension
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation - Left-sided heart failure increases pulmonary venous pressure, leading to transudation of fluid into alveolar spaces and pulmonary edema.
Correct answer is: Left-sided heart failure
Q.5 Which term describes extravasation of blood into tissues?
Hemostasis
Hemorrhage
Thrombosis
Hyperemia
Explanation - Hemorrhage refers to the escape of blood from the vascular system into surrounding tissues or spaces.
Correct answer is: Hemorrhage
Q.6 Petechiae are typically caused by:
Large vessel rupture
Platelet deficiency or dysfunction
Vitamin K excess
Massive trauma
Explanation - Petechiae are minute hemorrhages caused by thrombocytopenia, defective platelet function, or increased capillary fragility.
Correct answer is: Platelet deficiency or dysfunction
Q.7 Ecchymosis is commonly known as:
Pinpoint bleeding
Bruise
Nosebleed
Blood clot
Explanation - Ecchymosis refers to larger, superficial hemorrhages under the skin, commonly recognized as a bruise.
Correct answer is: Bruise
Q.8 What is the most important factor in the pathogenesis of thrombosis?
Hyperglycemia
Virchow’s triad
Liver cirrhosis
Anemia
Explanation - Thrombosis develops due to Virchow’s triad: endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow, and hypercoagulability.
Correct answer is: Virchow’s triad
Q.9 A red infarct is most likely to be found in:
Kidney
Spleen
Lungs
Heart
Explanation - Red infarcts occur in tissues with dual circulation or loose parenchyma like lungs where blood can seep into necrotic areas.
Correct answer is: Lungs
Q.10 Which of the following is a white infarct?
Lung infarct
Liver infarct
Intestinal infarct
Renal infarct
Explanation - White infarcts are typical in solid organs like the kidney and spleen due to end-arterial circulation.
Correct answer is: Renal infarct
Q.11 Which type of shock results from severe blood loss?
Cardiogenic shock
Neurogenic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Septic shock
Explanation - Hypovolemic shock is caused by excessive fluid or blood loss, reducing circulating volume.
Correct answer is: Hypovolemic shock
Q.12 The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is:
Massive myocardial infarction
Sepsis
Trauma
Burns
Explanation - Cardiogenic shock results primarily from severe left ventricular dysfunction due to a massive myocardial infarction.
Correct answer is: Massive myocardial infarction
Q.13 Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by:
Isolated thrombocytopenia
Widespread microthrombi and bleeding
Purely venous thrombosis
Exclusive arterial clots
Explanation - DIC involves widespread microvascular thrombosis with concurrent consumption of platelets and clotting factors, leading to bleeding.
Correct answer is: Widespread microthrombi and bleeding
Q.14 Which of the following is an example of primary hemostasis?
Coagulation cascade activation
Fibrin clot formation
Platelet plug formation
Clot lysis
Explanation - Primary hemostasis involves platelet adhesion, activation, and aggregation forming a temporary platelet plug.
Correct answer is: Platelet plug formation
Q.15 Which factor initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?
Factor IX
Factor VIII
Tissue factor (Factor III)
Factor XII
Explanation - The extrinsic pathway is initiated when tissue factor (Factor III) is exposed at sites of injury.
Correct answer is: Tissue factor (Factor III)
Q.16 Which of the following is a natural anticoagulant?
Thrombin
Plasmin
Protein C
Fibrin
Explanation - Protein C, activated by thrombin-thrombomodulin complex, degrades Factors Va and VIIIa, preventing excessive coagulation.
Correct answer is: Protein C
Q.17 Hemopericardium can result in:
Pleural effusion
Cardiac tamponade
Ascites
Pulmonary embolism
Explanation - Accumulation of blood in the pericardial sac (hemopericardium) can compress the heart, leading to cardiac tamponade.
Correct answer is: Cardiac tamponade
Q.18 A saddle embolus is most likely to obstruct:
Aortic arch
Renal artery
Main pulmonary artery bifurcation
Carotid artery
Explanation - A saddle embolus typically lodges at the bifurcation of the main pulmonary artery, causing sudden death.
Correct answer is: Main pulmonary artery bifurcation
Q.19 Fat embolism most commonly follows:
Long bone fractures
Aortic aneurysm
Cerebral infarction
Myocardial infarction
Explanation - Fat embolism usually occurs after fractures of long bones such as the femur, due to fat globules entering circulation.
Correct answer is: Long bone fractures
Q.20 Which of the following is NOT part of Virchow’s triad?
Endothelial injury
Stasis of blood flow
Hypercoagulability
Hypotension
Explanation - Virchow’s triad includes endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow (stasis/turbulence), and hypercoagulability—not hypotension.
Correct answer is: Hypotension
Q.21 Which of the following is the most common site of systemic arterial emboli?
Lower extremities
Brain
Kidneys
Spleen
Explanation - Systemic arterial emboli most often lodge in arteries of the lower extremities, causing ischemia and infarction.
Correct answer is: Lower extremities
Q.22 Lines of Zahn are characteristic of:
Postmortem clots
Antemortem thrombi
Fat embolism
Air embolism
Explanation - Lines of Zahn are alternating layers of platelets/fibrin and RBCs seen in thrombi formed during life.
Correct answer is: Antemortem thrombi
Q.23 In shock, the irreversible stage is characterized by:
Full recovery after treatment
Reversible tissue injury
Severe cellular and tissue injury leading to death
Compensated hemodynamics
Explanation - The irreversible stage of shock involves severe cellular damage, metabolic failure, and is usually fatal.
Correct answer is: Severe cellular and tissue injury leading to death
Q.24 What is the most common cause of pulmonary embolism?
Air embolism
Fat embolism
Thromboembolism from deep vein thrombosis
Amniotic fluid embolism
Explanation - Most pulmonary emboli originate as thrombi in deep veins of the lower limbs, dislodging and traveling to the lungs.
Correct answer is: Thromboembolism from deep vein thrombosis
Q.25 Which organ is most resistant to infarction due to its dual blood supply?
Liver
Kidney
Spleen
Heart
Explanation - The liver has a dual blood supply from the hepatic artery and portal vein, making it relatively resistant to infarction.
Correct answer is: Liver