Q.1 Which hormone is primarily responsible for the mid-cycle LH surge that triggers ovulation?
Progesterone
Estrogen
FSH
Prolactin
Explanation - A sustained rise in estrogen from the dominant follicle stimulates the anterior pituitary to release the LH surge, leading to ovulation.
Correct answer is: Estrogen
Q.2 Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is commonly associated with which metabolic abnormality?
Hypoglycemia
Insulin resistance
Hypothyroidism
Addison’s disease
Explanation - Insulin resistance is a hallmark of PCOS and contributes to hyperandrogenism and anovulation.
Correct answer is: Insulin resistance
Q.3 Which of the following is a first-line medication for ovulation induction in women with PCOS?
Metformin
Clomiphene citrate
Progesterone
GnRH agonists
Explanation - Clomiphene citrate is the first-line agent for ovulation induction in anovulatory PCOS women who wish to conceive.
Correct answer is: Clomiphene citrate
Q.4 The most common cause of infertility in women is:
Endometriosis
Tubal disease
Ovulatory dysfunction
Uterine fibroids
Explanation - Ovulatory dysfunction, often due to PCOS, is the most frequent cause of female infertility.
Correct answer is: Ovulatory dysfunction
Q.5 Which phase of the menstrual cycle is most variable in length?
Follicular phase
Ovulatory phase
Luteal phase
Menstrual phase
Explanation - The follicular phase varies in length between cycles, while the luteal phase is typically consistent (12–14 days).
Correct answer is: Follicular phase
Q.6 Which hormone prevents multiple follicles from reaching dominance during the menstrual cycle?
Inhibin B
FSH
LH
GnRH
Explanation - Inhibin B is secreted by developing follicles and suppresses FSH to prevent recruitment of multiple follicles.
Correct answer is: Inhibin B
Q.7 In assisted reproductive technology (ART), which procedure involves fertilization outside the body?
IUI
IVF
ZIFT
GIFT
Explanation - In vitro fertilization (IVF) involves fertilizing the oocyte outside the body and transferring the embryo into the uterus.
Correct answer is: IVF
Q.8 Which uterine condition is most strongly associated with infertility?
Fibroids
Polyps
Septum
Adenomyosis
Explanation - A congenital uterine septum significantly impacts implantation and pregnancy outcomes compared to other uterine abnormalities.
Correct answer is: Septum
Q.9 Which of the following best describes luteal phase defect?
Low LH surge
Inadequate progesterone secretion
Prolonged follicular phase
Absent ovulation
Explanation - A luteal phase defect is due to insufficient progesterone secretion, leading to poor endometrial development for implantation.
Correct answer is: Inadequate progesterone secretion
Q.10 What is the most accurate test for confirming ovulation?
Basal body temperature
Serum progesterone
Urinary LH kits
Endometrial biopsy
Explanation - Mid-luteal serum progesterone (>3 ng/mL) is the most reliable test for confirming ovulation.
Correct answer is: Serum progesterone
Q.11 Which gonadotropin stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone in males?
FSH
LH
GnRH
Inhibin
Explanation - In males, LH stimulates Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone, essential for spermatogenesis.
Correct answer is: LH
Q.12 The ‘two-cell, two-gonadotropin theory’ describes interaction between:
Granulosa and Theca cells
Oocytes and Granulosa cells
Theca cells and Endometrium
Granulosa cells and Endometrium
Explanation - Theca cells produce androgens under LH stimulation, which granulosa cells convert to estrogens under FSH influence.
Correct answer is: Granulosa and Theca cells
Q.13 Which is the most common cause of hyperprolactinemia?
Pituitary adenoma
Stress
Hypothyroidism
Drugs (antipsychotics)
Explanation - Prolactin-secreting pituitary adenomas (prolactinomas) are the most common pathological cause of hyperprolactinemia.
Correct answer is: Pituitary adenoma
Q.14 Which drug is commonly used to treat hyperprolactinemia?
Clomiphene
Cabergoline
Metformin
Tamoxifen
Explanation - Cabergoline, a dopamine agonist, is the drug of choice for lowering prolactin levels in hyperprolactinemia.
Correct answer is: Cabergoline
Q.15 Which hormone is measured on day 3 of the menstrual cycle to assess ovarian reserve?
Estradiol
FSH
LH
Progesterone
Explanation - Day 3 FSH levels help assess ovarian reserve; elevated levels suggest diminished ovarian function.
Correct answer is: FSH
Q.16 Which syndrome is characterized by primary amenorrhea, elevated FSH, and streak gonads?
Kallmann syndrome
Turner syndrome
Asherman’s syndrome
PCOS
Explanation - Turner syndrome (45,X) is associated with streak ovaries, hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, and primary amenorrhea.
Correct answer is: Turner syndrome
Q.17 Which ART procedure bypasses both the cervix and fallopian tubes?
IUI
IVF
ZIFT
GIFT
Explanation - IVF bypasses the cervix and fallopian tubes since fertilization occurs outside the body and the embryo is transferred directly into the uterus.
Correct answer is: IVF
Q.18 Which chromosomal abnormality is most common in recurrent pregnancy loss?
Turner syndrome
Balanced translocation
Klinefelter syndrome
Trisomy 21
Explanation - Parental balanced translocations are the most common chromosomal cause of recurrent pregnancy loss.
Correct answer is: Balanced translocation
Q.19 Which of the following is NOT a feature of PCOS?
Hirsutism
Oligo-ovulation
Low LH
Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
Explanation - PCOS is associated with elevated LH levels, not low LH.
Correct answer is: Low LH
Q.20 What is the normal duration of the luteal phase?
7–9 days
10–12 days
12–14 days
15–18 days
Explanation - The luteal phase is relatively constant in duration, lasting around 12–14 days.
Correct answer is: 12–14 days
Q.21 Which gonadotropin analog is used to trigger ovulation in ART?
GnRH agonist
GnRH antagonist
hCG
FSH
Explanation - hCG mimics the LH surge and is used to induce final oocyte maturation and ovulation in ART.
Correct answer is: hCG
Q.22 Which structure is formed after ovulation at the site of the ruptured follicle?
Corpus albicans
Corpus luteum
Graafian follicle
Primordial follicle
Explanation - After ovulation, the ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which secretes progesterone.
Correct answer is: Corpus luteum
Q.23 Which hormone is secreted by the early embryo to maintain corpus luteum function?
FSH
Progesterone
hCG
LH
Explanation - The embryo secretes hCG, which maintains the corpus luteum until placental progesterone production takes over.
Correct answer is: hCG
Q.24 Which imaging modality is most useful for assessing ovarian reserve?
MRI
CT scan
Transvaginal ultrasound
Hysterosalpingography
Explanation - Transvaginal ultrasound helps assess ovarian reserve by measuring antral follicle count.
Correct answer is: Transvaginal ultrasound
Q.25 Which hormone suppresses FSH production during the luteal phase?
Inhibin A
Inhibin B
Progesterone
hCG
Explanation - Inhibin A, secreted by the corpus luteum, inhibits FSH production in the luteal phase.
Correct answer is: Inhibin A
