Q.1 Which of the following is the most common cause of first-trimester pregnancy loss?
Chromosomal abnormalities
Maternal diabetes
Cervical incompetence
Infections
Explanation - Most first-trimester miscarriages result from chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus, particularly trisomies.
Correct answer is: Chromosomal abnormalities
Q.2 What is the most serious complication of preeclampsia?
Eclampsia
Placenta previa
Gestational diabetes
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation - Eclampsia is characterized by the onset of seizures in a woman with preeclampsia, making it the most severe complication.
Correct answer is: Eclampsia
Q.3 A pregnant woman at 30 weeks presents with painless vaginal bleeding. The most likely diagnosis is:
Placenta previa
Placental abruption
Vasa previa
Cervical polyp
Explanation - Placenta previa classically presents with painless, recurrent vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester.
Correct answer is: Placenta previa
Q.4 Which antihypertensive is contraindicated in pregnancy?
Methyldopa
Labetalol
ACE inhibitors
Hydralazine
Explanation - ACE inhibitors are contraindicated because they can cause fetal renal dysgenesis and other anomalies.
Correct answer is: ACE inhibitors
Q.5 What is the most common risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Endometriosis
Uterine fibroids
Multiple sexual partners
Explanation - PID leads to tubal scarring, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Correct answer is: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Q.6 Which laboratory test is most useful in monitoring the resolution of ectopic pregnancy after methotrexate treatment?
Serum β-hCG
Progesterone levels
Ultrasound scan
LH levels
Explanation - Serial β-hCG monitoring helps confirm successful medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy.
Correct answer is: Serum β-hCG
Q.7 Which condition is characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and seizures during pregnancy?
Eclampsia
Preeclampsia
HELLP syndrome
Gestational hypertension
Explanation - Eclampsia is defined as preeclampsia with the onset of seizures.
Correct answer is: Eclampsia
Q.8 A molar pregnancy is most strongly associated with which of the following complications?
Choriocarcinoma
Ovarian torsion
Placenta previa
Gestational diabetes
Explanation - Hydatidiform mole can progress to gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, including choriocarcinoma.
Correct answer is: Choriocarcinoma
Q.9 Which of the following is a risk factor for gestational diabetes?
Obesity
Hypothyroidism
History of asthma
Low BMI
Explanation - Obesity is a strong risk factor for gestational diabetes due to increased insulin resistance.
Correct answer is: Obesity
Q.10 A pregnant woman develops sudden severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and a rigid uterus at 34 weeks. The likely diagnosis is:
Placental abruption
Placenta previa
Uterine rupture
Threatened miscarriage
Explanation - Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding and uterine rigidity due to placental separation.
Correct answer is: Placental abruption
Q.11 Polyhydramnios is most commonly associated with which fetal anomaly?
Esophageal atresia
Anencephaly
Down syndrome
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Explanation - Esophageal atresia prevents the fetus from swallowing amniotic fluid, leading to polyhydramnios.
Correct answer is: Esophageal atresia
Q.12 The HELLP syndrome includes hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and:
Low platelets
Proteinuria
Seizures
Hyperbilirubinemia
Explanation - HELLP stands for Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets.
Correct answer is: Low platelets
Q.13 The preferred management of severe preeclampsia at term is:
Immediate delivery
Antihypertensive therapy only
Magnesium sulfate alone
Bed rest
Explanation - Delivery is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, especially at term with severe features.
Correct answer is: Immediate delivery
Q.14 Which of the following is a risk factor for placenta accreta?
Previous cesarean section
Nulliparity
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Gestational diabetes
Explanation - Placenta accreta risk increases with uterine scarring from prior cesarean sections.
Correct answer is: Previous cesarean section
Q.15 What is the first-line medication for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia with severe features?
Magnesium sulfate
Diazepam
Phenytoin
Valproic acid
Explanation - Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for preventing and treating eclamptic seizures.
Correct answer is: Magnesium sulfate
Q.16 Which of the following is a known complication of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?
Fetal demise
Gestational diabetes
Maternal anemia
Polycythemia
Explanation - Intrahepatic cholestasis is associated with increased risk of stillbirth and preterm birth.
Correct answer is: Fetal demise
Q.17 Which test is used to detect fetomaternal hemorrhage?
Kleihauer-Betke test
Coombs test
TORCH screening
Non-stress test
Explanation - The Kleihauer-Betke test detects fetal red blood cells in maternal circulation.
Correct answer is: Kleihauer-Betke test
Q.18 Oligohydramnios is most often associated with:
Renal agenesis
Neural tube defects
Maternal hypertension
Maternal diabetes
Explanation - Renal agenesis prevents urine production, leading to oligohydramnios.
Correct answer is: Renal agenesis
Q.19 What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
Uterine atony
Retained placenta
Uterine rupture
Coagulopathy
Explanation - Uterine atony, or failure of the uterus to contract, accounts for most cases of postpartum hemorrhage.
Correct answer is: Uterine atony
Q.20 In a woman with gestational diabetes, the most likely complication in the neonate is:
Hypoglycemia
Neural tube defects
Renal agenesis
Down syndrome
Explanation - Infants of diabetic mothers are prone to hypoglycemia due to hyperinsulinemia.
Correct answer is: Hypoglycemia
Q.21 Which diagnostic tool is most sensitive for detecting placenta accreta?
MRI
Ultrasound with Doppler
CT scan
X-ray
Explanation - Ultrasound with Doppler is the first-line and most sensitive tool for diagnosing placenta accreta.
Correct answer is: Ultrasound with Doppler
Q.22 Which is a risk factor for uterine rupture?
Previous cesarean section
First pregnancy
Gestational hypertension
Macrosomia
Explanation - Uterine rupture is strongly associated with a scarred uterus, often from prior cesarean delivery.
Correct answer is: Previous cesarean section
Q.23 A woman presents with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which lab finding is most likely?
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypernatremia
Explanation - Severe vomiting in hyperemesis gravidarum often leads to hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.
Correct answer is: Hypokalemia
Q.24 Which complication is associated with twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome?
Oligohydramnios in donor twin
Macrosomia in both twins
Polyhydramnios in both twins
Equal growth of both twins
Explanation - In twin-to-twin transfusion, the donor twin develops oligohydramnios while the recipient has polyhydramnios.
Correct answer is: Oligohydramnios in donor twin
Q.25 Which infection during pregnancy is associated with hydrops fetalis?
Parvovirus B19
Rubella
Toxoplasmosis
Cytomegalovirus
Explanation - Parvovirus B19 infection causes severe fetal anemia leading to hydrops fetalis.
Correct answer is: Parvovirus B19