Q.1 Which type of burn is characterized by redness, pain, and no blistering?
First-degree burn
Second-degree burn
Third-degree burn
Fourth-degree burn
Explanation - First-degree burns affect only the epidermis, causing redness and pain but no blisters.
Correct answer is: First-degree burn
Q.2 A patient presents with a burn exposing the dermis and forming blisters. What type of burn is this?
First-degree burn
Superficial second-degree burn
Second-degree burn
Third-degree burn
Explanation - Second-degree burns involve the epidermis and part of the dermis, often resulting in blisters.
Correct answer is: Second-degree burn
Q.3 Which formula is commonly used to estimate fluid resuscitation in burn patients?
Maddox formula
Parkland formula
Broca formula
Cullen formula
Explanation - The Parkland formula calculates fluid requirements in burn patients: 4 mL × body weight (kg) × %TBSA burned, half given in the first 8 hours.
Correct answer is: Parkland formula
Q.4 Which of the following is a key feature of third-degree burns?
Painful, red skin
Blistering
Painless, charred skin
Swelling with erythema
Explanation - Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis, often causing insensitivity due to nerve destruction.
Correct answer is: Painless, charred skin
Q.5 Which burn depth requires surgical intervention such as skin grafting?
First-degree burn
Superficial second-degree burn
Deep second-degree and third-degree burns
Sunburn
Explanation - Burns that destroy deeper layers of skin often require surgical management for proper healing.
Correct answer is: Deep second-degree and third-degree burns
Q.6 What is the first step in pre-hospital burn care?
Apply ice directly to the burn
Remove the patient from the source of burn
Apply butter or oils
Give oral analgesics immediately
Explanation - The priority is to stop the burning process by removing the patient from the source of injury.
Correct answer is: Remove the patient from the source of burn
Q.7 Which sign suggests a circumferential burn of the limb may compromise circulation?
Erythema
Edema with distal pulselessness
Blisters
Pain on touch
Explanation - Circumferential burns can cause a compartment-like syndrome, leading to impaired distal circulation.
Correct answer is: Edema with distal pulselessness
Q.8 Which complication is most commonly associated with extensive burn injuries?
Hypothermia
Hyperthermia
Hyperglycemia
Hypertension
Explanation - Large burns disrupt skin barrier and fluid balance, leading to heat loss and hypothermia.
Correct answer is: Hypothermia
Q.9 Which topical agent is commonly used for burn wound infection prophylaxis?
Silver sulfadiazine
Neomycin
Mupirocin
Bacitracin
Explanation - Silver sulfadiazine is a widely used topical antimicrobial for preventing infection in burn wounds.
Correct answer is: Silver sulfadiazine
Q.10 Which burn type is caused by electrical injury?
Thermal burn
Chemical burn
Radiation burn
Electrical burn
Explanation - Electrical burns result from electric current passing through the body, causing tissue damage.
Correct answer is: Electrical burn
Q.11 Which systemic response is commonly seen in severe burn patients?
Hypervolemia
Burn shock
Septic shock
Cardiogenic shock
Explanation - Severe burns can cause burn shock due to fluid loss and capillary permeability changes, leading to hypovolemia.
Correct answer is: Burn shock
Q.12 Which type of chemical burn is most dangerous due to deep tissue penetration?
Acid burns
Alkali burns
Neutral solutions
Soap burns
Explanation - Alkalis penetrate deeper than acids, causing more severe tissue damage.
Correct answer is: Alkali burns
Q.13 Which burn assessment tool is used to evaluate total body surface area (TBSA) burned?
Glasgow Coma Scale
Rule of Nines
APGAR score
Reid Index
Explanation - The Rule of Nines divides the body into regions of 9% or multiples thereof to estimate TBSA burned.
Correct answer is: Rule of Nines
Q.14 Which condition is a long-term complication of deep burns?
Scarring and contractures
Edema
Hyperthermia
Hypoglycemia
Explanation - Deep burns often lead to fibrosis and contractures, limiting mobility and causing cosmetic deformities.
Correct answer is: Scarring and contractures
Q.15 In burn patients, which electrolyte abnormality is commonly observed early post-injury?
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypernatremia
Hyponatremia
Explanation - Cell lysis in burn tissue releases potassium into circulation, causing hyperkalemia in early burn phase.
Correct answer is: Hyperkalemia
Q.16 Which type of soft tissue injury involves a closed wound with damage to underlying tissue without breaking the skin?
Abrasion
Contusion
Laceration
Avulsion
Explanation - Contusions are bruises caused by blunt trauma, damaging tissue beneath intact skin.
Correct answer is: Contusion
Q.17 Which burn-related complication may present as tight, shiny skin around joints?
Edema
Compartment syndrome
Hypertrophic scarring
Infection
Explanation - Hypertrophic scars form raised, firm, and shiny tissue, often around joints, limiting movement.
Correct answer is: Hypertrophic scarring
Q.18 Which dressing type is commonly used to maintain a moist environment in partial-thickness burns?
Dry gauze
Hydrocolloid dressing
Adhesive tape
Plaster
Explanation - Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing by keeping the wound moist and protecting it from infection.
Correct answer is: Hydrocolloid dressing
Q.19 Which sign suggests inhalation injury in burn patients?
Facial burns and singed nasal hairs
Blisters on hands
Painful burn site
Dry, peeling skin
Explanation - Signs of inhalation injury include facial burns, singed nasal hairs, soot in the mouth or airway, and respiratory distress.
Correct answer is: Facial burns and singed nasal hairs
Q.20 Which type of burn is commonly caused by hot liquids?
Electrical burn
Thermal scald burn
Chemical burn
Radiation burn
Explanation - Scald burns are caused by hot liquids or steam and are common in children and elderly.
Correct answer is: Thermal scald burn
Q.21 Which factor increases the risk of burn wound infection?
Partial-thickness burn
Full-thickness burn
Small superficial burn
Burns <5% TBSA
Explanation - Full-thickness burns destroy the skin barrier completely, making them highly susceptible to infection.
Correct answer is: Full-thickness burn
Q.22 Which of the following is considered a major burn in adults?
10% TBSA partial-thickness burn
5% TBSA full-thickness burn
1% TBSA superficial burn
2% TBSA partial-thickness burn
Explanation - Full-thickness burns of >5% TBSA in adults are considered major burns requiring specialized care.
Correct answer is: 5% TBSA full-thickness burn
Q.23 Which soft tissue injury is characterized by tearing of skin and subcutaneous tissue due to shearing forces?
Abrasion
Laceration
Avulsion
Contusion
Explanation - Avulsions involve forceful separation of skin and underlying tissue from its attachment, often traumatic.
Correct answer is: Avulsion
Q.24 Which parameter is crucial to monitor in severe burn patients during the first 24 hours?
Blood pressure and urine output
Pulse oximetry only
Body temperature only
Serum creatinine only
Explanation - Monitoring hemodynamics and urine output is essential for assessing fluid resuscitation and preventing burn shock.
Correct answer is: Blood pressure and urine output
Q.25 Which of the following is a sign of compartment syndrome in burned limbs?
Paresthesia, pain on passive stretch, pulselessness
Redness and swelling
Blistering
Hyperpigmentation
Explanation - The '5 Ps' (pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pulselessness) indicate compartment syndrome requiring urgent intervention.
Correct answer is: Paresthesia, pain on passive stretch, pulselessness