Q.1 Which of the following is the primary muscle responsible for respiration?
Diaphragm
Intercostal muscles
Abdominal muscles
Pectoralis major
Explanation - The diaphragm contracts and flattens during inhalation, increasing thoracic volume and drawing air into the lungs.
Correct answer is: Diaphragm
Q.2 Which device is most appropriate for delivering a high concentration of oxygen to a patient in respiratory distress?
Nasal cannula
Simple face mask
Venturi mask
Non-rebreather mask
Explanation - A non-rebreather mask can deliver up to 90-100% oxygen, making it suitable for patients in severe respiratory distress.
Correct answer is: Non-rebreather mask
Q.3 Which of the following signs indicates hypoxia in a patient?
Bradycardia
Cyanosis
Hypotension
Diaphoresis
Explanation - Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, indicates inadequate oxygenation of the blood.
Correct answer is: Cyanosis
Q.4 Which of the following interventions is most effective for preventing atelectasis in post-operative patients?
Incentive spirometry
Bed rest
Oxygen therapy via nasal cannula
Antibiotic therapy
Explanation - Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing and lung expansion, helping prevent alveolar collapse (atelectasis) post-surgery.
Correct answer is: Incentive spirometry
Q.5 A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) should receive oxygen therapy carefully because:
It may lead to oxygen toxicity
It can reduce their respiratory drive
It causes hyperventilation
It increases mucus production
Explanation - In COPD patients, hypoxia is a major drive for breathing; excessive oxygen can decrease respiratory drive and lead to CO2 retention.
Correct answer is: It can reduce their respiratory drive
Q.6 Which of the following assessments best indicates effective oxygenation?
Respiratory rate of 20/min
Pulse oximetry reading of 98%
Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg
Temperature of 37°C
Explanation - Pulse oximetry measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen, providing a direct indication of oxygenation status.
Correct answer is: Pulse oximetry reading of 98%
Q.7 Which of the following is a common complication of prolonged oxygen therapy?
Hypoxemia
Oxygen toxicity
Respiratory acidosis
Bronchospasm
Explanation - Prolonged exposure to high concentrations of oxygen can damage lung tissue and lead to oxygen toxicity.
Correct answer is: Oxygen toxicity
Q.8 The normal range for arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) in a healthy adult is:
85-90%
90-94%
95-100%
100-105%
Explanation - Healthy adults typically maintain oxygen saturation between 95% and 100%. Values below this may indicate hypoxemia.
Correct answer is: 95-100%
Q.9 Which of the following positions is best for improving oxygenation in a patient with respiratory distress?
Supine
Prone
Fowler's
Trendelenburg
Explanation - Fowler's position (sitting upright) facilitates lung expansion and eases breathing in patients with respiratory distress.
Correct answer is: Fowler's
Q.10 A patient receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 3 L/min should be monitored for:
Skin irritation and dryness
Excessive sweating
Hypotension
Bradycardia
Explanation - Nasal cannula can dry nasal passages and cause skin irritation; humidification may be needed for prolonged use.
Correct answer is: Skin irritation and dryness
Q.11 Which of the following is the most important action when suctioning a patient’s airway?
Apply suction continuously while inserting the catheter
Insert the catheter as deeply as possible
Apply suction only while withdrawing the catheter
Use sterile water instead of saline
Explanation - Suction is applied only during withdrawal to prevent hypoxia and tissue damage.
Correct answer is: Apply suction only while withdrawing the catheter
Q.12 Which respiratory assessment finding is indicative of hypercapnia?
Bradycardia
Tachypnea
Confusion and headache
Hypothermia
Explanation - Hypercapnia (excess CO2) causes neurological symptoms like headache, confusion, and drowsiness.
Correct answer is: Confusion and headache
Q.13 Which of the following is the primary purpose of chest physiotherapy?
Reduce blood pressure
Promote airway clearance
Increase cardiac output
Reduce fever
Explanation - Chest physiotherapy (percussion, vibration, postural drainage) helps remove secretions from the lungs.
Correct answer is: Promote airway clearance
Q.14 Which of the following findings is a late sign of hypoxia?
Tachypnea
Cyanosis
Restlessness
Tachycardia
Explanation - Early signs of hypoxia include restlessness and tachypnea; cyanosis is a late and more severe sign.
Correct answer is: Cyanosis
Q.15 Which of the following nursing interventions helps improve oxygenation in a patient with pneumonia?
Encourage deep breathing and coughing
Limit fluid intake
Restrict activity
Keep the patient in supine position
Explanation - Deep breathing and coughing help expand the lungs and clear secretions, improving oxygenation.
Correct answer is: Encourage deep breathing and coughing
Q.16 Which type of oxygen delivery system allows precise control of oxygen concentration?
Nasal cannula
Simple face mask
Venturi mask
Non-rebreather mask
Explanation - Venturi masks deliver a precise oxygen concentration using different adapters to mix oxygen with room air.
Correct answer is: Venturi mask
Q.17 A patient has dyspnea and accessory muscle use. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
SpO2 97%
Tachypnea with retractions
Respiratory rate 16/min
Heart rate 80 bpm
Explanation - Use of accessory muscles and retractions indicates respiratory distress and increased work of breathing.
Correct answer is: Tachypnea with retractions
Q.18 Which of the following lab values best indicates adequate oxygenation?
PaO2 60 mmHg
PaO2 80-100 mmHg
PaCO2 50 mmHg
pH 7.2
Explanation - Arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) between 80-100 mmHg indicates adequate oxygenation in healthy adults.
Correct answer is: PaO2 80-100 mmHg
Q.19 Which of the following conditions is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways leading to airflow obstruction?
Asthma
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolism
Bronchiectasis
Explanation - Asthma involves chronic airway inflammation and hyper-responsiveness, causing reversible airflow obstruction.
Correct answer is: Asthma
Q.20 Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action for a patient experiencing sudden airway obstruction?
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
Perform the Heimlich maneuver
Encourage deep breathing
Place in Fowler's position
Explanation - Sudden airway obstruction requires immediate intervention with the Heimlich maneuver to clear the airway.
Correct answer is: Perform the Heimlich maneuver
Q.21 Which of the following respiratory therapies is used to keep alveoli open in premature infants?
Incentive spirometry
CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure)
Oxygen via nasal cannula
Mechanical ventilation only
Explanation - CPAP provides continuous pressure to keep alveoli open, preventing atelectasis in premature infants.
Correct answer is: CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure)
Q.22 Which of the following is a sign of ineffective airway clearance?
Clear breath sounds
Productive cough with thick secretions
Normal oxygen saturation
Regular respiratory rate
Explanation - Thick secretions that are difficult to expel indicate impaired airway clearance.
Correct answer is: Productive cough with thick secretions
Q.23 Which of the following techniques can help mobilize secretions in a patient with cystic fibrosis?
Postural drainage
CPR
Oxygen therapy only
Bed rest
Explanation - Postural drainage uses positioning to promote mucus drainage from the lungs in patients with cystic fibrosis.
Correct answer is: Postural drainage
Q.24 Which of the following is the first priority when assessing a patient with respiratory distress?
Breath sounds
Oxygen saturation
Airway patency
Respiratory rate
Explanation - Ensuring the airway is clear is always the first priority in respiratory assessment and emergency care.
Correct answer is: Airway patency