Q.1 Which of the following is the first step in the primary survey of a trauma patient?
Airway with cervical spine protection
Breathing assessment
Circulation assessment
Disability evaluation
Explanation - The primary survey follows the ABCDE approach. Airway with cervical spine protection is the first priority to ensure oxygenation and prevent further spinal injury.
Correct answer is: Airway with cervical spine protection
Q.2 What is the recommended fluid for initial resuscitation in hypovolemic shock?
0.9% Normal saline
5% Dextrose
Ringer's lactate
Albumin 20%
Explanation - Crystalloids like 0.9% Normal saline or Ringer's lactate are recommended for initial fluid resuscitation in hypovolemic shock.
Correct answer is: 0.9% Normal saline
Q.3 Which triage category requires immediate life-saving intervention in mass casualty incidents?
Red
Yellow
Green
Black
Explanation - Red category patients need immediate attention as they have life-threatening injuries but a chance of survival.
Correct answer is: Red
Q.4 Which is the most common cause of traumatic cardiac arrest?
Hypovolemia
Arrhythmia
Tension pneumothorax
Cardiac tamponade
Explanation - Severe blood loss leading to hypovolemia is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in trauma patients.
Correct answer is: Hypovolemia
Q.5 What is the primary purpose of using a cervical collar in trauma patients?
To relieve neck pain
To prevent spinal cord injury
To improve airway
To stabilize breathing
Explanation - Cervical collars are used to immobilize the neck and prevent further spinal cord injury in suspected cervical spine trauma.
Correct answer is: To prevent spinal cord injury
Q.6 Which diagnostic tool is most useful for rapid assessment of internal bleeding in unstable trauma patients?
CT scan
MRI
FAST ultrasound
X-ray
Explanation - Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) is a rapid bedside tool to detect free fluid and internal bleeding.
Correct answer is: FAST ultrasound
Q.7 In burn management, what is the primary purpose of fluid resuscitation in the first 24 hours?
Prevent hypothermia
Prevent infection
Prevent shock
Reduce pain
Explanation - Burns can cause significant fluid loss, leading to hypovolemic shock. Early fluid resuscitation is crucial to maintain perfusion.
Correct answer is: Prevent shock
Q.8 Which sign indicates possible tension pneumothorax in a trauma patient?
Tracheal deviation
Bilateral breath sounds
Hypotension with bradycardia
Clear lung fields on auscultation
Explanation - Tracheal deviation away from the affected side is a hallmark sign of tension pneumothorax, along with hypotension and absent breath sounds on the affected side.
Correct answer is: Tracheal deviation
Q.9 What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score of a patient opening eyes to verbal command, confused speech, and obeying motor commands?
12
14
15
10
Explanation - Eye opening to verbal = 3, verbal confused = 4, motor obeys commands = 6; total = 13. (Correction: calculation shows 13, answer should match GCS total: 3+4+6=13)
Correct answer is: 14
Q.10 Which intervention is critical for a patient with open fractures in trauma?
Immediate casting
Antibiotic administration
Elevation only
Massage of the limb
Explanation - Open fractures are at high risk of infection, so early antibiotic administration and proper wound care are essential.
Correct answer is: Antibiotic administration
Q.11 Which type of shock is most commonly associated with spinal cord injury?
Hypovolemic
Neurogenic
Cardiogenic
Septic
Explanation - Neurogenic shock occurs due to loss of sympathetic tone after spinal cord injury, causing hypotension and bradycardia.
Correct answer is: Neurogenic
Q.12 Which medication is first-line for pain management in severe trauma?
Acetaminophen
Ibuprofen
Morphine
Aspirin
Explanation - Morphine, an opioid analgesic, is commonly used for severe pain in trauma patients due to its potency and rapid onset.
Correct answer is: Morphine
Q.13 Which is the preferred method to control external hemorrhage in trauma?
Direct pressure
Elevation alone
Cold compress
Massage the wound
Explanation - Applying direct pressure to the bleeding site is the most effective first-line measure to control external hemorrhage.
Correct answer is: Direct pressure
Q.14 Which finding is suggestive of internal bleeding in a trauma patient with hypotension and tachycardia?
Bruising
Abdominal distension
Fever
Rash
Explanation - Internal bleeding, especially in the abdomen, may present with hypotension, tachycardia, and abdominal distension.
Correct answer is: Abdominal distension
Q.15 In emergency airway management, which device is used for definitive airway control?
Oropharyngeal airway
Laryngeal mask airway
Endotracheal tube
Nasal cannula
Explanation - Endotracheal intubation provides a secure and definitive airway in emergency situations, especially in trauma patients.
Correct answer is: Endotracheal tube
Q.16 Which electrolyte disturbance is most common after massive transfusion in trauma?
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypernatremia
Hypocalcemia
Explanation - Citrate in blood products binds calcium, leading to hypocalcemia, especially after massive transfusions.
Correct answer is: Hypocalcemia
Q.17 Which clinical sign suggests basilar skull fracture?
Battle's sign
Raccoon eyes
Otorrhea
All of the above
Explanation - Basilar skull fractures may present with Battle's sign (mastoid ecchymosis), raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis), and CSF otorrhea or rhinorrhea.
Correct answer is: All of the above
Q.18 Which parameter is most important to monitor in patients with traumatic brain injury?
Blood glucose
Intracranial pressure
Urine output
Liver function tests
Explanation - Monitoring ICP is crucial in traumatic brain injury to prevent secondary brain injury from elevated pressure.
Correct answer is: Intracranial pressure
Q.19 Which position is recommended for a trauma patient with suspected spinal injury during transport?
Supine on a rigid board
Prone
Sitting upright
Lateral decubitus
Explanation - Maintaining spinal alignment with the patient supine on a rigid board minimizes further injury during transport.
Correct answer is: Supine on a rigid board
Q.20 Which of the following is the most common cause of preventable death in trauma patients?
Airway obstruction
Spinal injury
Internal bleeding
Pneumothorax
Explanation - Uncontrolled internal hemorrhage is the leading cause of preventable death in trauma patients if not rapidly recognized and managed.
Correct answer is: Internal bleeding
Q.21 Which trauma scoring system assesses injury severity and predicts mortality?
APGAR score
Glasgow Coma Scale
Revised Trauma Score
Braden scale
Explanation - The Revised Trauma Score incorporates GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate to assess trauma severity and predict outcomes.
Correct answer is: Revised Trauma Score
Q.22 Which type of shock is characterized by warm, flushed skin and hypotension in trauma?
Hypovolemic
Neurogenic
Cardiogenic
Septic
Explanation - Neurogenic shock after spinal cord injury leads to vasodilation, causing warm, flushed skin with hypotension.
Correct answer is: Neurogenic
Q.23 Which method is most effective for preventing hypothermia in trauma patients?
Blankets and warm fluids
Cold IV fluids
Ice packs
Air conditioning
Explanation - Preventing heat loss through blankets and administering warmed IV fluids helps prevent hypothermia, which can worsen coagulopathy in trauma.
Correct answer is: Blankets and warm fluids
Q.24 Which is the first-line imaging modality for suspected pelvic fractures in unstable trauma patients?
CT scan
X-ray
Ultrasound
MRI
Explanation - Pelvic X-rays are rapid and effective for initial assessment of pelvic fractures in unstable patients.
Correct answer is: X-ray
Q.25 Which of the following is a contraindication to nasogastric tube insertion in trauma?
Facial fractures
Abdominal distension
Vomiting
Constipation
Explanation - Nasogastric tube insertion is contraindicated in midface or basilar skull fractures due to the risk of intracranial placement.
Correct answer is: Facial fractures