Q.1 What is the main purpose of a gel in DNA experiments?
To keep the DNA warm
To separate DNA strands by size
To color the DNA
To store DNA for long time
Explanation - Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their length as they move through a gel under an electric field.
Correct answer is: To separate DNA strands by size
Q.2 Which of these is a common source of DNA in a biology lab?
Plastic tubes
Coffee beans
Blood samples
Electric wires
Explanation - Blood contains white blood cells that contain DNA, making it a common source for DNA extraction.
Correct answer is: Blood samples
Q.3 What does the abbreviation PCR stand for?
Protein Conduction Reaction
Polymerase Chain Reaction
Photo Chromatic Resonance
Power Cycle Regulator
Explanation - PCR is a method used to amplify small amounts of DNA into millions of copies.
Correct answer is: Polymerase Chain Reaction
Q.4 Which instrument is used to read the patterns of proteins in a sample?
Mass spectrometer
Microscope
Thermometer
Oscilloscope
Explanation - Mass spectrometry measures the mass-to-charge ratio of ions, helping identify protein components.
Correct answer is: Mass spectrometer
Q.5 What is the function of a microarray in genomics?
To cool down DNA
To detect DNA variations across many genes
To stretch the DNA
To split DNA into halves
Explanation - Microarrays allow simultaneous analysis of thousands of genes for expression or mutation patterns.
Correct answer is: To detect DNA variations across many genes
Q.6 Which of these is NOT a type of protein in the body?
Enzymes
Structural
Electrical
Hormonal
Explanation - Proteins have enzymatic, structural, and signaling roles, but they are not classified as electrical proteins.
Correct answer is: Electrical
Q.7 What is the role of a ladder in gel electrophoresis?
To show the electric field
To provide a size reference for DNA fragments
To keep the gel from melting
To stain the DNA
Explanation - A DNA ladder contains fragments of known lengths to compare against unknown samples.
Correct answer is: To provide a size reference for DNA fragments
Q.8 Which component of a cell contains the genetic instructions?
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Cell membrane
Ribosome
Explanation - The nucleus houses DNA that directs cellular functions.
Correct answer is: Nucleus
Q.9 Which process changes a DNA sequence into an RNA sequence?
Replication
Transcription
Translation
Denaturation
Explanation - Transcription copies DNA into messenger RNA.
Correct answer is: Transcription
Q.10 What does CRISPR stand for in genome editing?
Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
Coordinated Regularly Integrated Short Protein Repeats
Clustered Rapidly Intersecting Short Parental Repeats
None of the above
Explanation - CRISPR is a technology used to edit genes by targeting specific DNA sequences.
Correct answer is: Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
Q.11 Which of these is a step in preparing DNA for sequencing?
Adding a fluorescent dye
Heating the sample to 100°C
Cooling the sample to 0°C
Injecting the DNA into a computer
Explanation - Fluorescent dyes help identify DNA fragments during sequencing.
Correct answer is: Adding a fluorescent dye
Q.12 What electrical property is measured by a biosensor detecting DNA hybridization?
Resistance
Capacitance
Inductance
Voltage
Explanation - DNA binding changes the dielectric properties, altering capacitance readings.
Correct answer is: Capacitance
Q.13 Which technique is used to identify post-translational modifications in proteins?
Western blotting
X-ray crystallography
Electrophoretic mobility shift assay
Protein mass spectrometry
Explanation - Mass spectrometry can detect modifications like phosphorylation or methylation.
Correct answer is: Protein mass spectrometry
Q.14 What is the main advantage of next‑generation sequencing (NGS) over Sanger sequencing?
Higher accuracy per read
Lower cost per base
Requires less DNA input
All of the above
Explanation - NGS provides higher throughput, lower cost, and works with minimal sample amounts.
Correct answer is: All of the above
Q.15 Which device is commonly used to amplify DNA fragments in a thermal cycling process?
Spectrophotometer
Thermal cycler
Bunsen burner
pH meter
Explanation - A thermal cycler automates temperature changes needed for PCR.
Correct answer is: Thermal cycler
Q.16 In proteomics, what does 2D‑PAGE separate proteins based on?
Size and charge
Size only
Charge only
Hydrophobicity
Explanation - Two‑dimensional PAGE first separates by isoelectric point (charge) then by molecular weight.
Correct answer is: Size and charge
Q.17 Which of these is a common source of biological noise in electrical biosensors?
Temperature fluctuations
Electrical interference from power lines
Random genetic mutations
All of the above
Explanation - Biological sensors can be affected by environmental temperature, electromagnetic noise, and biological variability.
Correct answer is: All of the above
Q.18 What does the term 'coverage' mean in sequencing data analysis?
The percentage of the genome that is sequenced
The number of times a given base is read
The quality of the sequencing machine
The speed of data transfer
Explanation - Coverage refers to how many times each base in the genome has been sequenced.
Correct answer is: The number of times a given base is read
Q.19 Which method is commonly used to quantify RNA after extraction?
Nanodrop spectrophotometry
PCR amplification
Gel electrophoresis
Mass spectrometry
Explanation - Nanodrop measures absorbance at 260 nm to estimate RNA concentration.
Correct answer is: Nanodrop spectrophotometry
Q.20 What is a key feature of CRISPR‑Cas9 system in genome editing?
It inserts new random sequences
It creates double‑strand breaks at specific sites
It deletes entire chromosomes
It changes the color of cells
Explanation - Cas9 endonuclease cuts DNA at the location guided by the RNA sequence.
Correct answer is: It creates double‑strand breaks at specific sites
Q.21 Which property of a protein is NOT typically determined by mass spectrometry?
Sequence
Post‑translational modifications
3‑D structure
Molecular weight
Explanation - Mass spectrometry provides mass and sequence information, but 3‑D structure is obtained by X‑ray or NMR.
Correct answer is: 3‑D structure
Q.22 In an electrical biosensor, what does the term 'signal transduction' refer to?
Converting a biological interaction into an electrical signal
Generating electrical power from the body
Transmitting data over the internet
Cleaning the sensor surface
Explanation - Signal transduction converts a biological event (e.g., DNA hybridization) into a measurable electrical change.
Correct answer is: Converting a biological interaction into an electrical signal
Q.23 Which computational tool is frequently used for aligning sequencing reads to a reference genome?
BLAST
BWA
Excel
MATLAB
Explanation - BWA (Burrows-Wheeler Aligner) is a fast and accurate tool for read alignment.
Correct answer is: BWA
Q.24 What is the main challenge in proteomic analysis of membrane proteins?
They are too small
They are insoluble in aqueous solutions
They degrade in air
They are fluorescent
Explanation - Membrane proteins require detergents for solubilization, complicating analysis.
Correct answer is: They are insoluble in aqueous solutions
Q.25 Which of the following best describes 'RNA‑seq'?
Sequencing of DNA from a single cell
Sequencing of the entire proteome
Sequencing of RNA molecules to assess gene expression
Sequencing of membrane potentials
Explanation - RNA‑seq quantifies transcript levels across the transcriptome.
Correct answer is: Sequencing of RNA molecules to assess gene expression
Q.26 In a microfluidic chip used for DNA amplification, what role does the 'thermal cycling block' serve?
Maintains constant temperature
Rapidly changes temperature for PCR
Stores reagents
Detects fluorescence
Explanation - The thermal block cycles between denaturation, annealing, and extension temperatures.
Correct answer is: Rapidly changes temperature for PCR
Q.27 Which signal processing technique is often used to filter noise from an ECG signal?
Fourier transform
Laplace transform
Wavelet transform
All of the above
Explanation - Multiple transforms can be applied to isolate and remove noise from biomedical signals.
Correct answer is: All of the above
Q.28 Which of these is a common application of bioinformatics in genomics?
Predicting protein folding
Designing electrical circuits
Developing new batteries
Measuring resistance of DNA
Explanation - Bioinformatics uses algorithms to predict structures from sequence data.
Correct answer is: Predicting protein folding
Q.29 What is the purpose of a 'library preparation' step in next‑generation sequencing?
To store DNA samples
To fragment DNA and add adapters for sequencing
To amplify DNA by PCR
To clean the sequencing machine
Explanation - Library prep creates sequencing-compatible fragments with adapter sequences.
Correct answer is: To fragment DNA and add adapters for sequencing
Q.30 Which of the following best describes the 'signal-to-noise ratio' in a biosensor?
The ratio of output power to input power
The ratio of true signal to background noise
The ratio of sensor size to sample volume
The ratio of temperature to humidity
Explanation - A high signal-to-noise ratio indicates clear detection of the target molecule.
Correct answer is: The ratio of true signal to background noise
Q.31 Which technology integrates electrical impedance spectroscopy with microfluidics to detect DNA binding?
Capillary electrophoresis
Impedance-based biosensor
Laser-induced fluorescence
Mass spectrometry
Explanation - Impedance changes when DNA hybridizes on the sensor surface.
Correct answer is: Impedance-based biosensor
Q.32 What is the advantage of using a CRISPR‑Cas13 system over Cas9 for RNA targeting?
It cuts DNA more efficiently
It can target RNA without cutting DNA
It is cheaper to produce
It requires no guide RNA
Explanation - Cas13 is an RNA‑guided ribonuclease that cleaves RNA specifically.
Correct answer is: It can target RNA without cutting DNA
Q.33 In proteomic shotgun analysis, proteins are first digested into peptides using which enzyme?
Trypsin
DNA polymerase
Ligase
Adenylate cyclase
Explanation - Trypsin cleaves proteins at lysine and arginine residues to generate peptides for MS.
Correct answer is: Trypsin
Q.34 Which parameter in a mass spectrometer indicates the time it takes a peptide to travel through the ion source to the detector?
Flight time
Retention time
Dwell time
Exposure time
Explanation - Flight time is the duration a peptide ion spends in the mass analyzer.
Correct answer is: Flight time
Q.35 What does 'label-free quantification' refer to in proteomics?
Using radioactive labels to measure proteins
Quantifying proteins without chemical tags
Using fluorescent dyes
Labeling proteins with heavy isotopes
Explanation - Label‑free methods compare MS signal intensities directly between samples.
Correct answer is: Quantifying proteins without chemical tags
Q.36 Which of the following is a key requirement for a microelectrode array used in neural recording?
High electrical resistance
Biocompatible insulation
Large size
High temperature tolerance
Explanation - The array must not provoke tissue damage while accurately recording neural signals.
Correct answer is: Biocompatible insulation
Q.37 What does the term 'base‑calling' mean in the context of high‑throughput sequencing?
Determining the DNA sequence from raw signal data
Calculating the base pair count in a sample
Adding base pairs to a DNA strand
Removing bases from a sequence
Explanation - Base‑calling interprets signal intensity into A, T, C, or G nucleotides.
Correct answer is: Determining the DNA sequence from raw signal data
Q.38 Which algorithm is commonly used for de novo genome assembly from short reads?
K‑mer graph algorithm
Dijkstra’s algorithm
Huffman coding
Gaussian elimination
Explanation - De Bruijn graphs built from k‑mers enable assembly of short sequencing reads.
Correct answer is: K‑mer graph algorithm
Q.39 In a surface‑plasmon resonance (SPR) biosensor, what property of a target molecule leads to a measurable signal?
Mass
Size
Refractive index change near the sensor surface
Electrical conductivity
Explanation - Binding events alter the local refractive index, shifting the plasmon resonance wavelength.
Correct answer is: Refractive index change near the sensor surface
Q.40 Which technique can be used to visualize protein‑protein interaction networks derived from proteomics data?
Western blotting
Chromatography
Graph theory based network analysis
Spectrophotometry
Explanation - Network graphs illustrate how proteins interact within the cell.
Correct answer is: Graph theory based network analysis
Q.41 Which of the following is a critical consideration when designing an electrode for DNA detection?
Surface roughness
Color of the electrode
Weight of the electrode
Electrical insulation
Explanation - Surface roughness can affect adsorption and signal sensitivity.
Correct answer is: Surface roughness
Q.42 What does 'single‑molecule real‑time sequencing' (SMRT) primarily measure?
DNA sequence via fluorescent labels
Electrical impedance changes
Enzyme activity over time
Time‑dependent polymerase kinetics during sequencing
Explanation - SMRT captures real‑time nucleotide incorporation events.
Correct answer is: Time‑dependent polymerase kinetics during sequencing
Q.43 Which of the following best describes the use of microarray data in personalized medicine?
Identifying the most effective drug for a patient based on gene expression patterns
Determining a patient's favorite color
Predicting weather patterns
Measuring heart rate variability
Explanation - Gene expression profiles guide targeted therapies in personalized medicine.
Correct answer is: Identifying the most effective drug for a patient based on gene expression patterns
Q.44 In a mass spectrometry‑based proteomics workflow, what is the purpose of the 'fragmentation step'?
To ionize peptides
To separate peptides by charge
To break peptides into smaller ions for sequence determination
To neutralize the sample
Explanation - Fragmentation (e.g., CID) produces product ions that reveal peptide sequence.
Correct answer is: To break peptides into smaller ions for sequence determination
Q.45 What does the term 'signal amplification' refer to in the context of electrochemical biosensors?
Increasing the number of electrons in a reaction
Using catalytic reactions to generate multiple detectable electrons per target binding event
Amplifying the voltage output
Amplifying the optical signal
Explanation - Signal amplification enhances sensitivity by producing many electrons from a single target.
Correct answer is: Using catalytic reactions to generate multiple detectable electrons per target binding event
Q.46 Which computational method is essential for predicting 3D protein structures from sequence data?
Molecular docking
Alpha‑Fold
Principal component analysis
Fourier analysis
Explanation - Alpha‑Fold uses deep learning to predict protein structures from amino acid sequences.
Correct answer is: Alpha‑Fold
Q.47 In the analysis of microRNA expression, which technology is most commonly used?
DNA microarray
RNA‑seq
qPCR
All of the above
Explanation - MicroRNA profiling can be done by arrays, sequencing, or quantitative PCR.
Correct answer is: All of the above
Q.48 Which of the following is NOT typically a component of a proteomic pipeline?
Protein extraction
Peptide separation
Genotyping
Mass spectrometry
Explanation - Proteomics focuses on proteins, while genotyping deals with DNA variants.
Correct answer is: Genotyping
Q.49 What is a key benefit of using a multiplexed electrochemical biosensor array in point‑of‑care diagnostics?
Simultaneous detection of multiple biomarkers
Lower manufacturing cost
Longer shelf life
Higher electrical resistance
Explanation - Multiplexing allows rapid screening of several targets from a single sample.
Correct answer is: Simultaneous detection of multiple biomarkers
Q.50 Which type of sequencing error is most common in Illumina platforms?
Deletion errors
Substitution errors
Insertion errors
All of the above
Explanation - Illumina chemistry typically produces base substitution errors rather than indels.
Correct answer is: Substitution errors
Q.51 What does a 'spectral library' provide for proteomics mass spectrometry data analysis?
A database of known peptide fragmentation patterns for identification
A list of all proteins in the genome
A catalog of DNA sequences
A reference of electrical circuits
Explanation - Spectral libraries enable matching observed spectra to predicted peptide ions.
Correct answer is: A database of known peptide fragmentation patterns for identification
Q.52 In the context of gene editing, what does 'off‑target effect' refer to?
Editing at unintended genomic locations
The efficiency of on‑target editing
The cost of the editing reagent
The speed of the editing reaction
Explanation - Off‑target edits can cause unwanted mutations elsewhere in the genome.
Correct answer is: Editing at unintended genomic locations
Q.53 Which of the following best describes the 'limit of detection' (LOD) for a biosensor?
The maximum analyte concentration it can measure
The smallest analyte concentration that can be reliably detected
The speed at which it can detect analytes
The cost of the sensor
Explanation - LOD indicates the sensor’s sensitivity threshold.
Correct answer is: The smallest analyte concentration that can be reliably detected
Q.54 What is the primary advantage of using a nanopore sequencer over traditional benchtop sequencers?
It requires less power
It can sequence extremely long reads in real time
It is cheaper to manufacture
It uses optical detection
Explanation - Nanopore sequencing can read DNA strands several megabases long directly.
Correct answer is: It can sequence extremely long reads in real time
Q.55 In proteomics, what does the term 'label‑free quantification' mean?
Using fluorescent tags
Using isotope tags
Measuring signal intensity directly without tags
Using DNA tags
Explanation - It relies on comparing peak intensities between samples.
Correct answer is: Measuring signal intensity directly without tags
Q.56 Which type of microfluidic device is designed to perform rapid DNA amplification with minimal reagent volume?
Paper‑based microfluidic chip
Lab‑on‑a‑chip PCR device
Centrifuge
Spectrophotometer
Explanation - Microfluidic PCR systems enable rapid thermal cycling in a compact format.
Correct answer is: Lab‑on‑a‑chip PCR device
Q.57 Which of the following is a major challenge in interpreting large proteomic datasets?
Data storage and computation
Limited availability of mass spectrometers
Inability to detect proteins
High cost of DNA extraction
Explanation - High‑throughput proteomics generates massive datasets requiring robust bioinformatics.
Correct answer is: Data storage and computation
Q.58 What does the term 'sequencing depth' refer to?
The total number of bases sequenced
The average number of times a base in the genome is read
The depth of the sequencer’s storage
The length of a single read
Explanation - Sequencing depth indicates coverage quality for variant calling.
Correct answer is: The average number of times a base in the genome is read
Q.59 Which component is critical for achieving high sensitivity in electrochemical DNA biosensors?
High‑purity glass slide
Nanostructured electrode surface
Large electrode area
High‑temperature environment
Explanation - Nanostructures increase surface area and improve electron transfer rates.
Correct answer is: Nanostructured electrode surface
Q.60 Which technique is commonly used to verify the success of CRISPR gene editing?
Sanger sequencing of the target locus
Mass spectrometry of the protein product
Electrophoretic mobility shift assay
X‑ray diffraction
Explanation - Sanger sequencing provides precise base‑pair resolution at the edited site.
Correct answer is: Sanger sequencing of the target locus
Q.61 What is the role of a 'capture probe' in a DNA microarray?
To amplify DNA strands
To bind specifically to complementary DNA sequences on the array surface
To generate electrical signals
To stain the DNA for imaging
Explanation - Capture probes immobilize target DNA for detection and quantification.
Correct answer is: To bind specifically to complementary DNA sequences on the array surface
Q.62 Which of the following best describes the term 'data fusion' in biomedical signal processing?
Combining multiple data sources to improve analysis accuracy
Separating overlapping signals
Deleting redundant data
Amplifying a single signal
Explanation - Data fusion integrates signals from different sensors for robust interpretation.
Correct answer is: Combining multiple data sources to improve analysis accuracy
Q.63 Which of the following is a major advantage of using an optical biosensor over an electrochemical sensor for DNA detection?
Lower cost
Higher sensitivity to pH changes
No need for electrodes
Higher temperature tolerance
Explanation - Optical sensors detect changes in light properties, eliminating electrode requirements.
Correct answer is: No need for electrodes
Q.64 In proteomics, what does the term 'protein inference' refer to?
Determining the exact 3D structure of a protein
Inferring the identity of proteins from peptide mass spectra
Predicting protein expression levels
Creating synthetic proteins
Explanation - Protein inference assigns peptide evidence to specific proteins.
Correct answer is: Inferring the identity of proteins from peptide mass spectra
Q.65 Which of these is a typical application of microRNA profiling in clinical diagnostics?
Cancer biomarker discovery
DNA sequencing
Protein crystallization
Battery design
Explanation - MicroRNA signatures can indicate disease state and prognosis.
Correct answer is: Cancer biomarker discovery
Q.66 Which technique can be used to quantify absolute protein concentrations without labeling?
MALDI‑TOF mass spectrometry
SDS‑PAGE
Western blotting
ELISA
Explanation - MALDI‑TOF can provide absolute mass-based quantification using calibration curves.
Correct answer is: MALDI‑TOF mass spectrometry
Q.67 What is a common source of systematic error in RNA‑seq data analysis?
Unequal library amplification
High sequencing depth
Large number of biological replicates
Low GC content
Explanation - Differential amplification can bias expression estimates.
Correct answer is: Unequal library amplification
Q.68 Which of the following is a critical step when preparing a protein sample for liquid chromatography‑tandem mass spectrometry (LC‑MS/MS)?
Heat treatment at 100 °C for 30 min
Protein denaturation and reduction followed by alkylation
Storing at −80 °C in water
Addition of a fluorescent dye
Explanation - This prepares the protein for efficient digestion and detection.
Correct answer is: Protein denaturation and reduction followed by alkylation
Q.69 Which computational approach is essential for predicting off‑target CRISPR sites?
In‑silico alignment of guide RNA sequences
Physical modeling of CRISPR complexes
Laboratory screening only
Protein folding simulation
Explanation - Bioinformatics tools scan the genome for similar sequences to assess off‑targets.
Correct answer is: In‑silico alignment of guide RNA sequences
Q.70 What is a common metric used to assess the quality of a de novo genome assembly?
N50 value
Protein folding score
Signal-to-noise ratio
Cell viability
Explanation - N50 indicates the contiguity of an assembly.
Correct answer is: N50 value
Q.71 Which type of mass spectrometer is best suited for high‑resolution protein identification?
Ion trap
Orbitrap
Quadrupole
Time‑of‑flight
Explanation - Orbitraps provide high mass accuracy needed for complex proteomics.
Correct answer is: Orbitrap
Q.72 In microfluidic DNA sequencing devices, what advantage does integrated temperature control provide?
Increased reagent consumption
Precise and rapid thermal cycling for PCR
Higher electrical resistance
Lower optical clarity
Explanation - Accurate temperature changes enable efficient DNA amplification.
Correct answer is: Precise and rapid thermal cycling for PCR
Q.73 Which of the following is a primary reason for using a 'stand‑by' mode in a biosensor during data acquisition?
To reduce power consumption when not measuring
To increase the sensor temperature
To sterilize the sensor surface
To amplify the signal
Explanation - Stand‑by conserves energy and prolongs battery life in portable devices.
Correct answer is: To reduce power consumption when not measuring
Q.74 In a proteomics workflow, which of the following is essential for quantifying post‑translational modifications?
Use of a high‑resolution mass spectrometer
DNA sequencing
Fluorescence microscopy
Electrical impedance measurement
Explanation - Accurate mass measurements detect subtle mass shifts from modifications.
Correct answer is: Use of a high‑resolution mass spectrometer
Q.75 Which of the following best explains why 'label‑free' methods are preferred in high‑throughput proteomics?
They are faster and avoid chemical labeling steps
They provide higher resolution images
They require less sample volume
Both A and C
Explanation - Label‑free avoids extra processing and reduces sample consumption.
Correct answer is: Both A and C
Q.76 What does the term 'dynamic range' refer to in the context of a biosensor?
The range of temperatures it can operate in
The range of analyte concentrations it can measure accurately
The frequency of signal fluctuations
The voltage range it can handle
Explanation - Dynamic range is the interval between the lowest and highest detectable concentrations.
Correct answer is: The range of analyte concentrations it can measure accurately
Q.77 Which of the following is a key benefit of using a multiplexed microarray for gene expression profiling?
Allows simultaneous analysis of thousands of genes
Requires more sample
Increases processing time
Reduces data storage requirements
Explanation - Multiplexing increases throughput and reduces per‑gene cost.
Correct answer is: Allows simultaneous analysis of thousands of genes
Q.78 What is the primary function of a 'reference genome' in genomic analysis?
To provide a template for aligning sequencing reads
To store proteomic data
To generate microarray images
To measure electrical signals
Explanation - The reference genome serves as a scaffold for mapping reads and calling variants.
Correct answer is: To provide a template for aligning sequencing reads
Q.79 Which of the following is an example of a 'wet lab' technique used in genomics?
Bioinformatics modeling
DNA extraction and PCR
Electrical circuit simulation
Data compression algorithms
Explanation - Wet lab methods involve actual laboratory procedures on biological samples.
Correct answer is: DNA extraction and PCR
Q.80 What role does a 'digital PCR' instrument play in biomarker detection?
Measures the electrical conductivity of DNA
Quantifies nucleic acids with high precision by partitioning reactions
Creates DNA fragments for sequencing
Immunoprecipitates proteins
Explanation - Digital PCR partitions the sample, enabling absolute quantification.
Correct answer is: Quantifies nucleic acids with high precision by partitioning reactions
Q.81 Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a protein–protein interaction (PPI) network analysis?
Node degree centrality
Edge betweenness
DNA sequencing read depth
Cluster analysis
Explanation - PPI analysis focuses on protein interactions, not sequencing depth.
Correct answer is: DNA sequencing read depth