Q.1 What is the primary mechanism by which checkpoint inhibitor drugs, such as pembrolizumab, enhance anti‑tumor immunity?
They directly kill tumor cells by inducing apoptosis
They block inhibitory signals on T cells, restoring their activity
They increase the production of tumor‑derived antigens
They stimulate the innate immune system to produce more neutrophils
Explanation - Checkpoint inhibitors bind to proteins like PD‑1 or CTLA‑4 on T cells, preventing tumor‑mediated inhibition and allowing T cells to recognize and destroy cancer cells.
Correct answer is: They block inhibitory signals on T cells, restoring their activity
Q.2 Which of the following is a key advantage of CAR‑T cell therapy over traditional chemotherapy?
It can target any type of bacterial infection
It requires only a single oral dose
It can be engineered to specifically recognize tumor‑associated antigens
It eliminates the need for any monitoring after infusion
Explanation - CAR‑T cells are genetically modified to express chimeric antigen receptors that bind uniquely to antigens on cancer cells, providing precise targeting.
Correct answer is: It can be engineered to specifically recognize tumor‑associated antigens
Q.3 In the context of immunotherapy, what does the term “neoantigen” refer to?
A foreign antigen introduced by a vaccine
A newly formed antigen arising from tumor‑specific mutations
An antigen that is shared by all human cells
A synthetic peptide used for diagnostic imaging
Explanation - Neoantigens are novel peptide sequences generated by somatic mutations in cancer cells; they are not present in normal tissues and can be recognized by the immune system.
Correct answer is: A newly formed antigen arising from tumor‑specific mutations
Q.4 Which imaging modality is most commonly combined with immunotherapy to monitor treatment response in real time?
X‑ray radiography
Positron emission tomography (PET)
Ultrasound
Electroencephalography (EEG)
Explanation - PET, especially using radiolabeled antibodies or glucose analogues, can visualize metabolic changes and immune cell infiltration during immunotherapy.
Correct answer is: Positron emission tomography (PET)
Q.5 What is the main purpose of using a “cytokine release assay” in the development of immunotherapeutics?
To measure the electrical conductivity of the drug solution
To quantify the amount of drug that crosses the blood‑brain barrier
To assess the functional activation of immune cells after exposure to a candidate drug
To determine the half‑life of the drug in plasma
Explanation - Cytokine release assays detect cytokines like IFN‑γ released by immune cells, indicating their activation by the therapeutic agent.
Correct answer is: To assess the functional activation of immune cells after exposure to a candidate drug
Q.6 Which of the following best describes the term “immune checkpoint”?
A molecular pathway that enhances antibody production
A regulatory pathway that limits T‑cell activity to prevent autoimmunity
A type of vaccine that stimulates B‑cell memory
A signal that triggers immediate cell death in neutrophils
Explanation - Immune checkpoints such as PD‑1/PD‑L1 and CTLA‑4 act as brakes on T‑cell responses, maintaining self‑tolerance.
Correct answer is: A regulatory pathway that limits T‑cell activity to prevent autoimmunity
Q.7 What is the primary function of a dendritic cell vaccine in cancer immunotherapy?
To directly lyse tumor cells through enzymatic activity
To present tumor antigens to T cells, initiating an adaptive response
To increase the production of red blood cells
To suppress the innate immune response
Explanation - Dendritic cell vaccines load patient‑derived tumor antigens onto dendritic cells, which then travel to lymph nodes to activate T cells.
Correct answer is: To present tumor antigens to T cells, initiating an adaptive response
Q.8 Which technology enables precise editing of immune cell genomes for therapeutic purposes?
CRIS‑Cas9
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Gel electrophoresis
Western blotting
Explanation - CRIS‑Cas9 can be used to knock‑in or knock‑out genes in T cells, such as removing PD‑1 to improve CAR‑T efficacy.
Correct answer is: CRIS‑Cas9
Q.9 Which of the following side effects is most commonly associated with cytokine‑release syndrome (CRS) in CAR‑T therapy?
Hypertension and tachycardia
Fever, hypotension, and respiratory distress
Hair loss and skin rash
Renal failure without any inflammatory signs
Explanation - CRS results from massive cytokine release, leading to systemic inflammatory symptoms such as high fever, low blood pressure, and difficulty breathing.
Correct answer is: Fever, hypotension, and respiratory distress
Q.10 What does the abbreviation ‘PD‑L1’ stand for in immunotherapy literature?
Programmed Death‑Ligand 1
Protein Dimer‑Like 1
Phosphodiesterase‑Like 1
Polymerase D‑Like 1
Explanation - PD‑L1 is a ligand expressed on tumor cells that binds PD‑1 on T cells, delivering an inhibitory signal.
Correct answer is: Programmed Death‑Ligand 1
Q.11 Which class of immunotherapeutic agents is designed to stimulate the immune system by mimicking natural cytokines?
Monoclon monoclonal antibodies
Immune checkpoint inhibitors
Cytokine mimetics (e.g., IL‑2 analogues)
Oncolytic viruses
Explanation - Cytokine mimetics act like natural cytokines to activate immune cells, enhancing anti‑tumor activity.
Correct answer is: Cytokine mimetics (e.g., IL‑2 analogues)
Q.12 In the context of modern immunotherapy, what is an “oncolytic virus”?
A virus that exclusively infects and kills normal cells
A virus engineered to selectively infect and lyse cancer cells while stimulating immunity
A virus that provides gene therapy for inherited metabolic disorders
A virus used to deliver antibiotics to bacterial infections
Explanation - Oncolytic viruses replicate in tumor cells, causing cell lysis and releasing tumor antigens that further activate the immune response.
Correct answer is: A virus engineered to selectively infect and lyse cancer cells while stimulating immunity
Q.13 Which biomarker is most commonly used to predict response to PD‑1/PD‑L1 checkpoint blockade therapy?
Serum glucose level
Tumor mutational burden (TMB)
Blood pressure
Serum cholesterol
Explanation - High TMB often correlates with more neoantigens, increasing the likelihood of a successful response to checkpoint inhibitors.
Correct answer is: Tumor mutational burden (TMB)
Q.14 Which of the following best describes the term “adoptive cell transfer (ACT)”?
Passive transfer of antibodies from donor plasma
Transplantation of donor bone marrow
Infusion of ex‑vivo expanded or engineered immune cells into a patient
Administration of small‑molecule drugs that boost immunity
Explanation - ACT involves harvesting immune cells, modifying or expanding them, and re‑infusing them to target cancer.
Correct answer is: Infusion of ex‑vivo expanded or engineered immune cells into a patient
Q.15 What is the main advantage of using a bispecific T‑cell engager (BiTE) over a conventional monoclonal antibody?
BiTEs can bind simultaneously to a tumor antigen and CD3 on T cells, bringing them into close proximity
BiTEs are orally bioavailable
BiTEs do not require any manufacturing steps
BiTEs can cross the blood‑brain barrier without modification
Explanation - BiTEs create a physical bridge between T cells and tumor cells, promoting targeted cytotoxicity.
Correct answer is: BiTEs can bind simultaneously to a tumor antigen and CD3 on T cells, bringing them into close proximity
Q.16 Which electrical engineering principle is critical when designing implantable bio‑electronic devices for immunotherapy monitoring?
Ohm’s law for voltage regulation
Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction for wireless power transfer
Kirchhoff’s voltage law for circuit stability
Thevenin’s theorem for simplifying complex networks
Explanation - Wireless power transfer via inductive coupling, based on Faraday’s law, enables long‑term operation of implantable sensors without batteries.
Correct answer is: Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction for wireless power transfer
Q.17 What does the term “immune‑related adverse event (irAE)” refer to in patients receiving checkpoint inhibitors?
Infection caused by the drug itself
Autoimmune‑like toxicity affecting organs such as the colon, liver, or endocrine glands
A reduction in blood oxygen levels
An allergic reaction to food
Explanation - irAEs arise because checkpoint blockade lifts tolerance, leading to inflammation in normal tissues.
Correct answer is: Autoimmune‑like toxicity affecting organs such as the colon, liver, or endocrine glands
Q.18 Which of the following technologies is used to track the migration of engineered T cells in vivo?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with iron‑oxide labeling
Electrocardiography (ECG)
Spirometry
Thermography
Explanation - Labeling T cells with superparamagnetic iron oxide particles allows their visualization by MRI.
Correct answer is: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with iron‑oxide labeling
Q.19 In immunotherapy, what does the abbreviation ‘TIL’ stand for?
Tumor‑infiltrating lymphocytes
Thermal imaging laser
Trans‑intracellular ligand
Targeted immune ligand
Explanation - TILs are immune cells isolated from a tumor, expanded ex‑vivo, and reinfused to attack the cancer.
Correct answer is: Tumor‑infiltrating lymphocytes
Q.20 Which of the following best explains why combination therapy (e.g., checkpoint inhibitor + anti‑angiogenic agent) may improve outcomes?
It reduces the need for surgical removal of the tumor
It simultaneously targets distinct pathways, overcoming tumor resistance mechanisms
It eliminates the need for patient monitoring
It guarantees 100% cure rates
Explanation - Combining agents can modulate the tumor microenvironment and enhance immune infiltration, leading to synergistic effects.
Correct answer is: It simultaneously targets distinct pathways, overcoming tumor resistance mechanisms
Q.21 Which type of vaccine uses patient‑specific tumor DNA to stimulate an immune response?
Live‑attenuated viral vaccine
DNA‑based personalized cancer vaccine
Toxoid vaccine
Polysaccharide vaccine
Explanation - Patient tumor DNA is sequenced to identify neoantigens, which are then encoded in a DNA vaccine to elicit a tailored T‑cell response.
Correct answer is: DNA‑based personalized cancer vaccine
Q.22 What is the main role of the “Fc region” of an antibody used in immunotherapy?
Binding to the antigen
Activating immune effector functions such as ADCC and complement fixation
Crossing the blood‑brain barrier
Transporting the antibody across cell membranes
Explanation - The Fc (fragment crystallizable) region interacts with Fc receptors on immune cells, mediating antibody‑dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC).
Correct answer is: Activating immune effector functions such as ADCC and complement fixation
Q.23 Which modern computational technique aids the design of neoantigen‑specific T‑cell receptors?
Finite element analysis
Molecular dynamics simulations combined with machine learning
Fourier transform spectroscopy
Digital signal processing
Explanation - In silico modeling predicts peptide‑MHC binding and TCR recognition, accelerating personalized immunotherapy development.
Correct answer is: Molecular dynamics simulations combined with machine learning
Q.24 What is the purpose of using a “safety switch” (e.g., iCasp9) in engineered CAR‑T cells?
To increase the speed of T‑cell proliferation
To allow rapid elimination of the CAR‑T cells if severe toxicity occurs
To enhance the binding affinity to tumor antigens
To enable the CAR‑T cells to cross the blood‑brain barrier
Explanation - A safety switch can be activated by a small molecule, triggering apoptosis of the CAR‑T cells and mitigating adverse events.
Correct answer is: To allow rapid elimination of the CAR‑T cells if severe toxicity occurs
Q.25 Which cytokine is most commonly used ex‑vivo to expand tumor‑infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) before infusion?
Interleukin‑2 (IL‑2)
Interleukin‑10 (IL‑10)
Interferon‑β (IFN‑β)
Tumor necrosis factor‑α (TNF‑α)
Explanation - IL‑2 promotes the proliferation and survival of T cells during TIL expansion protocols.
Correct answer is: Interleukin‑2 (IL‑2)
Q.26 In the design of implantable biosensors for immunotherapy monitoring, which material property is most critical to minimize foreign‑body response?
High electrical conductivity
Biocompatibility and low immunogenicity
Magnetic permeability
Thermal conductivity
Explanation - Materials that are non‑reactive to the immune system reduce fibrosis and maintain sensor functionality.
Correct answer is: Biocompatibility and low immunogenicity
Q.27 Which of the following is NOT a recognized mechanism of resistance to PD‑1/PD‑L1 blockade?
Loss of beta‑2 microglobulin leading to reduced MHC‑I expression
Upregulation of alternative immune checkpoints such as LAG‑3
Increased expression of tumor‑associated antigens
Activation of the WNT/β‑catenin pathway suppressing T‑cell infiltration
Explanation - Higher antigen expression generally improves immune recognition; resistance is more often due to loss of antigen presentation or alternative inhibitory pathways.
Correct answer is: Increased expression of tumor‑associated antigens
Q.28 Which term describes the phenomenon where a tumor becomes ‘cold’ (non‑inflamed) and poorly responds to immunotherapy?
Immunogenic cell death
T‑cell anergy
Immune desertification
Tumor immune exclusion
Explanation - Immune‑excluded or ‘cold’ tumors lack infiltrating T cells, limiting the effectiveness of checkpoint blockade.
Correct answer is: Tumor immune exclusion
Q.29 What is the main purpose of using a “nanoparticle‑based delivery system” for checkpoint inhibitors?
To increase the drug’s electrical conductivity
To enable targeted delivery, reduce systemic toxicity, and improve tumor penetration
To change the drug’s color for easier visual tracking
To allow oral administration of large protein drugs
Explanation - Nanocarriers can concentrate antibodies at the tumor site and protect them from degradation.
Correct answer is: To enable targeted delivery, reduce systemic toxicity, and improve tumor penetration
Q.30 Which of the following best defines the term “tumor microenvironment (TME)”?
The genetic mutations inside tumor cells
The surrounding stromal cells, immune cells, vasculature, and extracellular matrix that interact with tumor cells
The temperature surrounding a tumor
The electrical field generated by tumor metabolism
Explanation - The TME plays a crucial role in regulating tumor growth, immune evasion, and response to therapy.
Correct answer is: The surrounding stromal cells, immune cells, vasculature, and extracellular matrix that interact with tumor cells
Q.31 Which method is commonly used to assess the functional activity of CAR‑T cells before patient infusion?
Flow cytometry for surface marker expression only
Cytotoxicity assay against antigen‑positive target cells
Electroencephalogram (EEG) recording
Blood glucose measurement
Explanation - In‑vitro killing assays verify that CAR‑T cells can recognize and lyse tumor cells expressing the target antigen.
Correct answer is: Cytotoxicity assay against antigen‑positive target cells
Q.32 What is the role of “adjuvants” in cancer vaccines?
They act as the primary antigen to be recognized by the immune system
They enhance the immune response to the vaccine antigen by stimulating innate immunity
They suppress the immune system to avoid over‑reaction
They deliver the vaccine across the blood‑brain barrier
Explanation - Adjuvants such as CpG or alum increase antigen presentation and cytokine production, strengthening adaptive immunity.
Correct answer is: They enhance the immune response to the vaccine antigen by stimulating innate immunity
Q.33 Which electrical parameter is most critical when designing a wireless telemetry system for monitoring cytokine levels in a wearable device?
Capacitance of the antenna
Signal‑to‑noise ratio (SNR) of the transmitted data
Inductance of the power supply
Resistance of the skin contact electrodes
Explanation - High SNR ensures accurate detection of low‑level biochemical signals amidst ambient electrical noise.
Correct answer is: Signal‑to‑noise ratio (SNR) of the transmitted data
Q.34 Which of the following is a hallmark of successful immune checkpoint therapy in patients?
Rapid weight gain
Increased tumor size on imaging
Immune‑related tumor regression and prolonged survival
Elevated serum calcium levels
Explanation - Effective checkpoint blockade leads to tumor shrinkage and improved overall survival rates.
Correct answer is: Immune‑related tumor regression and prolonged survival
Q.35 What does the term “immune‑editing” describe?
The process by which the immune system shapes tumor evolution through elimination, equilibrium, and escape
The editing of DNA sequences in T cells
The manufacturing of monoclonal antibodies
The editing of patient medical records
Explanation - Immune‑editing explains how tumors can be eradicated, remain dormant, or develop resistance under immune pressure.
Correct answer is: The process by which the immune system shapes tumor evolution through elimination, equilibrium, and escape
Q.36 Which of the following is a common method to increase the half‑life of therapeutic antibodies?
Attachment of polyethylene glycol (PEG) chains (PEGylation)
Reduction of disulfide bonds
Deletion of the Fc region
Addition of a nuclear localization signal
Explanation - PEGylation reduces renal clearance and proteolytic degradation, extending the antibody’s circulation time.
Correct answer is: Attachment of polyethylene glycol (PEG) chains (PEGylation)
Q.37 What is the primary goal of “personalized neoantigen vaccines”?
To provide universal protection against all cancers
To stimulate an immune response against patient‑specific tumor mutations
To replace chemotherapy entirely
To increase the number of red blood cells
Explanation - Neoantigen vaccines are tailored to the unique mutation profile of each patient’s tumor, improving specificity.
Correct answer is: To stimulate an immune response against patient‑specific tumor mutations
Q.38 Which of the following technologies enables real‑time monitoring of electrical activity in immune cells?
Patch‑clamp electrophysiology combined with microfluidic platforms
Standard blood pressure cuffs
X‑ray diffraction
Optical microscopy without any electrophysiological component
Explanation - Patch‑clamp can record ion channel activity in immune cells; integration with microfluidics allows high‑throughput monitoring.
Correct answer is: Patch‑clamp electrophysiology combined with microfluidic platforms
Q.39 Which of the following best describes “antibody‑dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)?”
Direct killing of tumor cells by antibodies alone
Recruitment of NK cells that recognize the Fc region of antibodies bound to tumor cells, leading to lysis
Inhibition of cytokine production by T cells
Activation of the complement cascade without involving immune cells
Explanation - ADCC relies on Fc‑γ receptors on NK cells to detect antibody‑coated targets and induce cytotoxicity.
Correct answer is: Recruitment of NK cells that recognize the Fc region of antibodies bound to tumor cells, leading to lysis
Q.40 Which of the following is a potential benefit of using “mRNA‑based cancer vaccines” over DNA‑based vaccines?
mRNA vaccines integrate into the host genome for long‑term expression
mRNA can be translated directly in the cytoplasm, leading to faster antigen production
mRNA vaccines require viral vectors for delivery
mRNA is more stable than DNA at room temperature
Explanation - mRNA does not need nuclear entry, allowing rapid protein synthesis and reducing risk of genomic integration.
Correct answer is: mRNA can be translated directly in the cytoplasm, leading to faster antigen production
Q.41 What is a major limitation of using high‑dose interleukin‑2 (IL‑2) therapy for cancer?
It cannot be produced in large quantities
It often causes severe vascular leak syndrome and systemic toxicity
It selectively destroys only B cells
It has no effect on T‑cell activation
Explanation - High‑dose IL‑2 can lead to capillary leak, hypotension, and organ dysfunction, limiting its clinical use.
Correct answer is: It often causes severe vascular leak syndrome and systemic toxicity
Q.42 In the context of immunotherapy, what does “T‑cell exhaustion” refer to?
Permanent loss of T‑cell viability after activation
A functional state characterized by reduced cytokine production and expression of inhibitory receptors
An increase in T‑cell proliferation rates
A phenomenon where T cells become resistant to all forms of therapy
Explanation - Exhausted T cells show high PD‑1, LAG‑3, and TIM‑3 and are less effective at killing tumor cells.
Correct answer is: A functional state characterized by reduced cytokine production and expression of inhibitory receptors
Q.43 Which emerging immunotherapy modality relies on the delivery of engineered mRNA encoding immune‑activating proteins directly into the tumor site?
CAR‑T cell therapy
Oncolytic virus therapy
RNA‑based intratumoral immunotherapy (e.g., mRNA‑encoded cytokines)
Passive antibody therapy
Explanation - Direct intratumoral injection of mRNA can produce cytokines or costimulatory molecules locally, enhancing immunity with limited systemic exposure.
Correct answer is: RNA‑based intratumoral immunotherapy (e.g., mRNA‑encoded cytokines)
Q.44 Which of the following statements about “immune checkpoint blockade” is true?
It works by stimulating tumor cell proliferation
It removes inhibitory signals on T cells, allowing them to attack cancer
It replaces the need for any antigen presentation
It solely relies on B‑cell mediated immunity
Explanation - Checkpoint inhibitors release the brakes on T cells, enhancing their cytotoxic activity against tumors.
Correct answer is: It removes inhibitory signals on T cells, allowing them to attack cancer
Q.45 What is the main rationale for using “bispecific antibodies” that bind both a tumor antigen and CD3 on T cells?
To block the tumor’s blood supply
To physically bring T cells into close proximity with cancer cells, promoting targeted killing
To deliver chemotherapy drugs into the tumor
To induce apoptosis in B cells
Explanation - Bispecifics act as a bridge, enabling T‑cell activation specifically at the tumor site.
Correct answer is: To physically bring T cells into close proximity with cancer cells, promoting targeted killing
Q.46 Which of the following best describes the concept of “synthetic lethality” in cancer immunotherapy?
Targeting two non‑essential genes that together cause cell death when inhibited
Using two drugs that have the same mechanism of action
Combining immunotherapy with radiation to increase DNA damage
Blocking a pathway that the tumor does not rely on
Explanation - Synthetic lethality exploits dependencies unique to cancer cells; in immunotherapy, it can involve combining checkpoint blockade with agents that induce DNA damage, making tumors more immunogenic.
Correct answer is: Targeting two non‑essential genes that together cause cell death when inhibited
Q.47 Which of the following is a major challenge when scaling up CAR‑T cell manufacturing?
Limited availability of viral vectors for gene transfer
Inability to culture T cells outside the human body
Excessive electrical conductivity of culture media
Lack of sufficient oxygen in the manufacturing facility
Explanation - Efficient, safe transduction of T cells often relies on lentiviral or retroviral vectors, which can be costly and have supply constraints.
Correct answer is: Limited availability of viral vectors for gene transfer
Q.48 What is the primary advantage of using “microfluidic chips” for high‑throughput screening of immunotherapeutic candidates?
They generate large electrical currents for cell stimulation
They allow precise control of fluid flow, enabling rapid testing of many conditions with minimal reagent use
They replace the need for any biological assays
They produce high‑resolution MRI images
Explanation - Microfluidics enables parallelized assays, reducing cost and time while maintaining physiological relevance.
Correct answer is: They allow precise control of fluid flow, enabling rapid testing of many conditions with minimal reagent use
Q.49 Which of the following biomarkers is often measured to assess the risk of cytokine release syndrome after CAR‑T infusion?
Serum creatinine
Serum ferritin
Serum glucose
Serum calcium
Explanation - Elevated ferritin correlates with systemic inflammation and can signal impending CRS.
Correct answer is: Serum ferritin
Q.50 In immuno‑engineering, what is the purpose of “magnetically guided cell targeting”?
To increase the electrical conductivity of immune cells
To direct magnetically labeled immune cells to specific tumor sites using external magnetic fields
To change the DNA sequence of the cells
To heat the cells for better activity
Explanation - Magnetic nanoparticles attached to cells enable external magnets to guide them toward tumor locations, enhancing localized therapy.
Correct answer is: To direct magnetically labeled immune cells to specific tumor sites using external magnetic fields
Q.51 Which of the following describes a “cold‑chain” requirement in the context of immunotherapy drug distribution?
Maintaining the drug at low temperatures (2‑8 °C) from manufacture to administration
Keeping the drug at high temperatures to activate it
Storing the drug at ambient room temperature for at least a month
Using a cryogenic freezer at –80 °C for all transport
Explanation - Many biologics, including antibodies and cytokines, require refrigerated conditions to preserve stability.
Correct answer is: Maintaining the drug at low temperatures (2‑8 °C) from manufacture to administration
Q.52 What is the main immunological function of “regulatory T cells (Tregs)” in the tumor microenvironment?
Enhance cytotoxic activity of CD8+ T cells
Suppress anti‑tumor immune responses, facilitating tumor growth
Produce antibodies against tumor antigens
Differentiate into NK cells
Explanation - Tregs release immunosuppressive cytokines and inhibit effector T‑cell activity, contributing to immune evasion.
Correct answer is: Suppress anti‑tumor immune responses, facilitating tumor growth
Q.53 Which of the following best explains why “tumor mutational burden (TMB)” is considered a predictive biomarker for checkpoint inhibitor therapy?
High TMB indicates a large number of neoantigens that can be recognized by T cells
TMB directly measures the amount of PD‑L1 on tumor cells
Low TMB correlates with better response to therapy
TMB reflects the blood pressure of the patient
Explanation - More mutations generate more novel peptides, increasing the probability of immune recognition when checkpoints are blocked.
Correct answer is: High TMB indicates a large number of neoantigens that can be recognized by T cells
Q.54 Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a CAR (chimeric antigen receptor) construct?
Extracellular antigen‑binding domain (scFv)
Transmembrane domain
Intracellular signaling domain (e.g., CD3ζ)
Mitochondrial DNA replication origin
Explanation - CAR constructs consist of scFv, hinge, transmembrane, and intracellular signaling domains; they do not contain mitochondrial DNA elements.
Correct answer is: Mitochondrial DNA replication origin
Q.55 Which modern imaging technique can be combined with radiolabeled antibodies to assess immune cell infiltration in tumors?
Positron emission tomography (PET)
Computed tomography (CT) without contrast
Ultrasound Doppler
Electroencephalography (EEG)
Explanation - Immuno‑PET uses radiolabeled antibodies (e.g., anti‑CD8) to visualize immune cell distribution in vivo.
Correct answer is: Positron emission tomography (PET)
Q.56 What is the main purpose of using “immune‑modulating nanoparticles” that release a checkpoint inhibitor locally within the tumor?
To increase systemic exposure and side effects
To concentrate the drug at the tumor, reducing systemic toxicity and enhancing efficacy
To replace the need for T‑cell activation
To create permanent genetic changes in tumor cells
Explanation - Localized delivery minimizes off‑target effects while maintaining high intratumoral drug concentrations.
Correct answer is: To concentrate the drug at the tumor, reducing systemic toxicity and enhancing efficacy
Q.57 Which of the following is a hallmark of an effective anti‑tumor immune response?
Increased levels of circulating tumor cells
Expansion of tumor‑specific CD8+ T cells
Decreased production of interferon‑γ
Elevated serum cholesterol
Explanation - Cytotoxic CD8+ T‑cell clones targeting tumor antigens are central to tumor eradication.
Correct answer is: Expansion of tumor‑specific CD8+ T cells
Q.58 Which technique is commonly used to detect the expression of PD‑L1 on tumor biopsies?
Immunohistochemistry (IHC)
Western blot of blood plasma
Electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)
Flow cytometry of red blood cells
Explanation - IHC stains tissue sections with anti‑PD‑L1 antibodies, allowing semi‑quantitative assessment of expression.
Correct answer is: Immunohistochemistry (IHC)
Q.59 What does the acronym “CRISPR” stand for?
Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
Cytoplasmic Ribosomal Internal Synthesis Protein Regulator
Cellular Reactive Ion System for Protein Recombination
Controlled Radiofrequency Induction System for Protein Repair
Explanation - CRISPR is a genome‑editing technology used to modify immune cells for therapy.
Correct answer is: Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats
Q.60 Which of the following statements about “immune checkpoint inhibitors” is correct?
They are only effective in bacterial infections
They can cause autoimmune‑like side effects because they unleash T‑cell activity
They permanently cure all cancers after a single dose
They work by directly killing tumor cells without involving the immune system
Explanation - By removing inhibitory signals, checkpoint inhibitors can trigger immune attacks against healthy tissues, leading to irAEs.
Correct answer is: They can cause autoimmune‑like side effects because they unleash T‑cell activity
Q.61 Which of the following is a key factor that limits the penetration of large antibody molecules into solid tumors?
High electrical conductivity of the tumor tissue
Dense extracellular matrix and high interstitial pressure
Low glucose concentration
Excessive temperature of the tumor
Explanation - Physical barriers impede diffusion of macromolecules, reducing therapeutic efficacy.
Correct answer is: Dense extracellular matrix and high interstitial pressure
Q.62 Which modern immunotherapy approach utilizes engineered bacteria to deliver cytokines directly into the tumor microenvironment?
Oncolytic virus therapy
CAR‑T cell therapy
Bacterial vector immunotherapy
Monoclonal antibody therapy
Explanation - Attenuated bacteria such as Salmonella can be programmed to secrete immune‑stimulating molecules within tumors.
Correct answer is: Bacterial vector immunotherapy
Q.63 What is the primary purpose of “dose‑escalation studies” in early‑phase immunotherapy trials?
To find the cheapest possible drug dose
To determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) and optimal biological dose (OBD)
To assess the drug’s taste and smell
To evaluate the drug’s effect on hair growth
Explanation - Phase I trials incrementally increase dose to identify safety limits and biologically active concentrations.
Correct answer is: To determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) and optimal biological dose (OBD)
Q.64 Which of the following is a characteristic of an “immune‑hot” tumor?
High infiltration of CD8+ T cells and expression of PD‑L1
Absence of any immune cells within the tumor
Complete lack of antigen presentation machinery
Very low mutational burden
Explanation - Immune‑hot tumors are inflamed and more likely to respond to checkpoint blockade.
Correct answer is: High infiltration of CD8+ T cells and expression of PD‑L1
Q.65 Which of the following electrical engineering tools is most useful for designing the RF antenna of an implantable wireless immunotherapy sensor?
Finite‑element method (FEM) electromagnetic simulation software
Digital signal processing (DSP) algorithms for audio
Power system load flow analysis
Control system PID tuning
Explanation - FEM tools model antenna behavior in tissue, optimizing size, frequency, and safety.
Correct answer is: Finite‑element method (FEM) electromagnetic simulation software
Q.66 Which cytokine is commonly used as an adjuvant in cancer vaccines to promote a Th1‑type immune response?
Interleukin‑4 (IL‑4)
Interleukin‑12 (IL‑12)
Interleukin‑10 (IL‑10)
Transforming growth factor‑β (TGF‑β)
Explanation - IL‑12 drives IFN‑γ production and cytotoxic T‑cell activation, supporting anti‑tumor immunity.
Correct answer is: Interleukin‑12 (IL‑12)
Q.67 What does the term “epitope spreading” refer to in the context of immunotherapy?
The expansion of tumor cells into surrounding tissue
The phenomenon where an immune response initially targeting one antigen expands to recognize additional tumor antigens
The spread of infection from one organ to another
The distribution of drug molecules through the bloodstream
Explanation - Epitope spreading can enhance the breadth of anti‑tumor immunity after initial activation.
Correct answer is: The phenomenon where an immune response initially targeting one antigen expands to recognize additional tumor antigens
Q.68 Which of the following best explains why “high‑throughput sequencing” is crucial for personalized cancer immunotherapy?
It determines the electrical conductivity of tumor tissue
It identifies patient‑specific neoantigens for vaccine design
It measures blood pressure more accurately
It replaces the need for any laboratory tests
Explanation - Sequencing reveals tumor mutations, enabling selection of immunogenic peptides for personalized vaccines or TCR engineering.
Correct answer is: It identifies patient‑specific neoantigens for vaccine design
Q.69 Which of the following is a potential benefit of combining radiotherapy with immune checkpoint blockade?
Radiotherapy reduces the need for any immune response
Radiotherapy can increase tumor antigen release, enhancing checkpoint inhibitor efficacy (abscopal effect)
Radiotherapy eliminates all immune cells, preventing side effects
Radiotherapy changes the drug’s chemical structure
Explanation - Radiation induces immunogenic cell death, providing new antigens that can be recognized when checkpoints are blocked.
Correct answer is: Radiotherapy can increase tumor antigen release, enhancing checkpoint inhibitor efficacy (abscopal effect)
Q.70 Which of the following immune cells primarily mediates antibody‑dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) against tumor cells?
B cells
Natural Killer (NK) cells
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Explanation - NK cells express FcγRIII (CD16) that binds the Fc region of antibodies coating tumor cells, leading to lysis.
Correct answer is: Natural Killer (NK) cells
Q.71 What is the main reason that “immune‑related gene expression profiling” is useful in predicting response to immunotherapy?
It measures the electrical activity of tumor cells
It evaluates the presence of immune‑active signatures such as IFN‑γ–related genes
It quantifies the amount of cholesterol in the tumor microenvironment
It determines the tumor’s temperature
Explanation - Gene signatures reflect an inflamed TME, correlating with better outcomes under checkpoint blockade.
Correct answer is: It evaluates the presence of immune‑active signatures such as IFN‑γ–related genes
Q.72 Which of the following best describes the concept of “synthetic biology” in the context of immunotherapy?
Using computer simulations to model tumor growth
Engineering immune cells with custom genetic circuits to control their activity
Measuring the electrical resistance of tumor tissue
Developing new surgical instruments
Explanation - Synthetic biology enables precise regulation of engineered cells (e.g., inducible CARs) for safety and efficacy.
Correct answer is: Engineering immune cells with custom genetic circuits to control their activity
Q.73 Which of the following is a commonly used surrogate marker for monitoring immune activation after a cancer vaccine?
Serum hemoglobin level
Increase in tumor‑specific IFN‑γ–producing T cells (measured by ELISpot)
Blood glucose concentration
Serum sodium level
Explanation - ELISpot detects cytokine secretion from antigen‑specific T cells, indicating vaccine‑induced immunity.
Correct answer is: Increase in tumor‑specific IFN‑γ–producing T cells (measured by ELISpot)
Q.74 Which of the following is a primary design consideration when creating a bio‑electronic implant for chronic cytokine monitoring?
Maximizing the implant’s magnetic field strength
Ensuring biocompatibility and minimizing fibrotic encapsulation
Increasing the device’s weight for better stability
Using a non‑conductive material for the electrodes
Explanation - Biocompatible surfaces reduce foreign‑body response, preserving sensor accuracy over time.
Correct answer is: Ensuring biocompatibility and minimizing fibrotic encapsulation
Q.75 Which of the following best explains why “tumor‑associated macrophages (TAMs)” are often targeted in immunotherapy strategies?
TAMs directly kill tumor cells without assistance
TAMs can be re‑programmed from a pro‑tumoral (M2) to an anti‑tumoral (M1) phenotype to stimulate immunity
TAMs produce antibodies against tumor antigens
TAMs are responsible for blood clot formation
Explanation - Modulating TAM polarization can shift the TME toward immune activation.
Correct answer is: TAMs can be re‑programmed from a pro‑tumoral (M2) to an anti‑tumoral (M1) phenotype to stimulate immunity
Q.76 Which of the following is a key advantage of using “nanobody‑based” therapeutics over conventional antibodies?
Nanobodies are larger and thus have longer half‑life
Nanobodies can penetrate dense tumor tissue more efficiently due to their small size
Nanobodies are more immunogenic
Nanobodies require viral vectors for delivery
Explanation - Their compact size (~15 kDa) allows better tumor penetration and easier engineering.
Correct answer is: Nanobodies can penetrate dense tumor tissue more efficiently due to their small size
Q.77 What does the term “immunogenic cell death (ICD)” refer to?
Cell death that suppresses immune activation
A form of apoptosis that releases danger‑associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) and tumor antigens, stimulating immunity
Necrosis caused by mechanical injury
Programmed cell death that occurs only in immune cells
Explanation - ICD converts dying tumor cells into a vaccine‑like source of antigens, enhancing immune responses.
Correct answer is: A form of apoptosis that releases danger‑associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) and tumor antigens, stimulating immunity
Q.78 Which of the following is a common method for measuring the binding affinity of a therapeutic antibody to its target antigen?
Surface plasmon resonance (SPR)
Electrocardiography (ECG)
Magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
Blood pressure cuff measurement
Explanation - SPR provides real‑time kinetic data on antibody‑antigen interactions, yielding affinity constants.
Correct answer is: Surface plasmon resonance (SPR)
Q.79 Which of the following best describes the role of “IL‑6” in the context of cytokine release syndrome (CRS)?
IL‑6 directly kills tumor cells
IL‑6 is a major driver of systemic inflammation and is targeted by tocilizumab to treat CRS
IL‑6 reduces fever and inflammation
IL‑6 is unrelated to CRS
Explanation - Blocking IL‑6 signaling with tocilizumab mitigates severe CRS symptoms in CAR‑T patients.
Correct answer is: IL‑6 is a major driver of systemic inflammation and is targeted by tocilizumab to treat CRS
Q.80 Which of the following best defines “adoptive cell transfer (ACT) therapy using tumor‑infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs)?”
Injecting patients with high‑dose steroids
Expanding a patient’s own TILs ex‑vivo and reinfusing them to target cancer
Administering a vaccine that contains bacterial DNA
Using radiation to destroy TILs in the tumor
Explanation - TIL therapy harnesses the patient’s naturally infiltrating immune cells, which are expanded and activated before infusion.
Correct answer is: Expanding a patient’s own TILs ex‑vivo and reinfusing them to target cancer
Q.81 In modern immunotherapy development, which computational approach is commonly used to predict peptide–MHC binding affinity?
Finite‑difference time‑domain (FDTD) simulation
Neural‑network based algorithms such as NetMHC
Laplace transform analysis
Monte Carlo integration of electrical circuits
Explanation - NetMHC and related tools use machine learning to estimate how well peptides bind to specific MHC alleles, guiding neoantigen selection.
Correct answer is: Neural‑network based algorithms such as NetMHC
Q.82 Which of the following best explains why “combination immunotherapy” can overcome primary resistance to single‑agent checkpoint blockade?
It reduces the cost of treatment
It targets multiple immune‑suppressive pathways simultaneously, reducing tumor escape mechanisms
It eliminates the need for patient monitoring
It always leads to complete tumor eradication
Explanation - Combining agents (e.g., PD‑1 inhibitor + LAG‑3 blocker) can block redundant inhibitory signals and improve efficacy.
Correct answer is: It targets multiple immune‑suppressive pathways simultaneously, reducing tumor escape mechanisms
Q.83 Which of the following is a key feature of “immune‑checkpoint agonists” under investigation?
They block PD‑1 to enhance T‑cell activity
They stimulate co‑stimulatory receptors like OX40 or 4‑1BB to boost T‑cell responses
They suppress B‑cell antibody production
They increase tumor cell proliferation
Explanation - Agonistic antibodies engage activating receptors, providing a second signal that enhances T‑cell expansion and survival.
Correct answer is: They stimulate co‑stimulatory receptors like OX40 or 4‑1BB to boost T‑cell responses
Q.84 What is the purpose of “biomarker‑driven patient stratification” in clinical trials of immunotherapy?
To assign patients to treatment arms based on predictive biomarkers (e.g., PD‑L1 expression) to improve response rates
To randomize patients without any scientific basis
To ensure all patients receive the same dose
To measure blood pressure before dosing
Explanation - Stratifying patients by biomarkers enriches trial populations for those most likely to benefit, increasing statistical power.
Correct answer is: To assign patients to treatment arms based on predictive biomarkers (e.g., PD‑L1 expression) to improve response rates
Q.85 Which of the following best describes the concept of “immune surveillance”?
The process by which the immune system continuously monitors and eliminates nascent transformed cells
The use of MRI to detect immune cells
A method for measuring blood glucose
A technique for increasing tumor size
Explanation - Immune surveillance is a natural defense mechanism that can prevent cancer development by recognizing and destroying abnormal cells.
Correct answer is: The process by which the immune system continuously monitors and eliminates nascent transformed cells
Q.86 Which of the following is a major limitation of using systemic high‑dose IL‑2 therapy?
It has no effect on T‑cell activation
It can cause severe vascular leak syndrome and hypotension
It is unable to cross the blood‑brain barrier
It selectively targets only B cells
Explanation - High‑dose IL‑2 can lead to capillary leak, low blood pressure, and organ dysfunction, limiting its clinical use.
Correct answer is: It can cause severe vascular leak syndrome and hypotension
Q.87 Which emerging technology combines CRISPR gene editing with CAR‑T cells to create “universal” off‑the‑shelf products?
Knocking out the endogenous T‑cell receptor (TCR) and HLA molecules to prevent graft‑versus‑host disease
Adding extra copies of the PD‑1 gene
Inserting viral DNA into the genome
Using RNA interference to silence CAR expression
Explanation - Removing TCR and HLA reduces alloreactivity, enabling allogeneic CAR‑T products usable in any patient.
Correct answer is: Knocking out the endogenous T‑cell receptor (TCR) and HLA molecules to prevent graft‑versus‑host disease
Q.88 Which of the following best describes the role of “Fc engineering” in therapeutic antibodies?
Changing the variable region to improve antigen specificity
Modifying the Fc region to enhance or reduce effector functions like ADCC
Altering the antibody’s color
Adding a transmembrane domain
Explanation - Fc engineering can increase affinity for Fcγ receptors, boosting ADCC, or reduce it to limit toxicity.
Correct answer is: Modifying the Fc region to enhance or reduce effector functions like ADCC
Q.89 Which of the following best explains why “tumor‑associated antigens (TAAs)” can sometimes lead to tolerance rather than immunity?
TAAs are always foreign to the host
TAAs are often self‑antigens that the immune system has been educated to ignore
TAAs are too small to be recognized
TAAs are rapidly degraded in the bloodstream
Explanation - Because many TAAs are derived from normal proteins, central tolerance may limit immune activation against them.
Correct answer is: TAAs are often self‑antigens that the immune system has been educated to ignore
Q.90 Which of the following is a primary goal of “immune‑modulating biomaterials” used in vaccine delivery?
To increase the temperature of the injection site
To provide a depot that releases antigen and adjuvant in a controlled manner, enhancing immune priming
To block all immune cell infiltration
To cause immediate cell death at the injection site
Explanation - Biomaterial scaffolds can sustain antigen exposure and recruit immune cells, improving vaccine efficacy.
Correct answer is: To provide a depot that releases antigen and adjuvant in a controlled manner, enhancing immune priming
Q.91 What does the term “immune checkpoint” specifically refer to in T‑cell biology?
A receptor that provides an activating signal to T cells
A receptor–ligand pair that delivers an inhibitory signal to dampen T‑cell activation
A gene that encodes cytokines
A surface protein that binds antibodies
Explanation - Checkpoint molecules such as PD‑1/PD‑L1 and CTLA‑4 act as brakes to prevent over‑activation of T cells.
Correct answer is: A receptor–ligand pair that delivers an inhibitory signal to dampen T‑cell activation
Q.92 Which of the following best illustrates the concept of “personalized immunotherapy”?
Using the same drug dose for all cancer patients
Designing a vaccine based on each patient’s unique tumor neoantigen profile
Prescribing a standard chemotherapy regimen
Applying radiation therapy uniformly across all tumor types
Explanation - Personalized approaches tailor therapy to individual tumor genetics, improving specificity and efficacy.
Correct answer is: Designing a vaccine based on each patient’s unique tumor neoantigen profile
Q.93 Which of the following is a key challenge when using viral vectors for delivering CAR constructs?
Low transduction efficiency in T cells
High immunogenicity leading to vector‑specific immune responses
Inability to integrate into the host genome
Excessive electrical conductivity
Explanation - Pre‑existing immunity to viral capsids can reduce transduction efficiency and cause adverse reactions.
Correct answer is: High immunogenicity leading to vector‑specific immune responses
Q.94 Which of the following best describes the therapeutic principle of “oncolytic virotherapy”?
Delivery of cytokines via viral particles
Use of engineered viruses that selectively replicate in and lyse tumor cells while stimulating anti‑tumor immunity
Administration of viral DNA to boost B‑cell production
Inhibition of viral infections in cancer patients
Explanation - Oncolytic viruses kill cancer cells directly and act as in‑situ vaccines by releasing tumor antigens.
Correct answer is: Use of engineered viruses that selectively replicate in and lyse tumor cells while stimulating anti‑tumor immunity
Q.95 Which of the following is a typical method for evaluating the cytotoxic activity of CAR‑T cells in vitro?
MTT assay measuring metabolic activity of target cells after co‑culture
Electrocardiogram recording
Blood pressure cuff measurement
Ultrasound imaging of cell culture
Explanation - The MTT assay quantifies viable target cells; reduced absorbance indicates CAR‑T mediated killing.
Correct answer is: MTT assay measuring metabolic activity of target cells after co‑culture
Q.96 Which of the following is a major benefit of using “bispecific T‑cell engager (BiTE) antibodies” in solid tumors?
They can cross the blood‑brain barrier without modification
They simultaneously bind CD3 on T cells and a tumor‑associated antigen, activating T cells at the tumor site
They permanently modify the genome of tumor cells
They replace the need for any immune cells
Explanation - BiTEs redirect T cells to cancer cells, facilitating targeted cytotoxicity without genetic modification of T cells.
Correct answer is: They simultaneously bind CD3 on T cells and a tumor‑associated antigen, activating T cells at the tumor site
Q.97 Which of the following best describes the role of “IL‑15” in immunotherapy?
It induces regulatory T‑cell expansion
It promotes the survival and proliferation of NK and memory CD8+ T cells without causing severe cytokine release syndrome
It directly kills tumor cells
It acts as a checkpoint inhibitor
Explanation - IL‑15 supports cytotoxic lymphocyte populations and is being explored as a safer cytokine alternative to IL‑2.
Correct answer is: It promotes the survival and proliferation of NK and memory CD8+ T cells without causing severe cytokine release syndrome
Q.98 Which of the following best explains why “electro‑spinning” is used in the fabrication of immunotherapy delivery patches?
It creates nanofibers that can encapsulate antigens and release them slowly at the skin surface
It increases the electrical conductivity of the patch
It sterilizes the patch by high voltage
It reduces the patch’s mechanical strength
Explanation - Electro‑spun nanofibrous mats provide high surface area and controlled release for vaccine delivery.
Correct answer is: It creates nanofibers that can encapsulate antigens and release them slowly at the skin surface
Q.99 What is the primary purpose of a “phase‑III randomized controlled trial (RCT)” in immunotherapy development?
To test the drug’s chemical stability
To compare the new therapy against standard of care in a large patient population to confirm efficacy and safety
To assess the drug’s taste
To determine the best storage temperature
Explanation - Phase‑III RCTs provide definitive evidence for regulatory approval.
Correct answer is: To compare the new therapy against standard of care in a large patient population to confirm efficacy and safety
Q.100 Which of the following best describes the function of “tumor‑associated macrophages (TAMs) M2 phenotype”?
Promotes inflammation and anti‑tumor immunity
Supports tissue repair, angiogenesis, and suppresses anti‑tumor immune responses
Directly kills tumor cells through phagocytosis
Produces antibodies against tumor antigens
Explanation - M2‑polarized TAMs create an immunosuppressive environment that facilitates tumor growth.
Correct answer is: Supports tissue repair, angiogenesis, and suppresses anti‑tumor immune responses
Q.101 Which of the following is a key parameter when designing a wireless power transfer system for an implantable immunotherapy sensor?
Specific absorption rate (SAR) to ensure safety limits for tissue heating
The color of the device housing
The device’s magnetic field strength in Tesla
The device’s ability to generate audible sound
Explanation - SAR measures how much electromagnetic energy is absorbed by tissue, critical for avoiding thermal damage.
Correct answer is: Specific absorption rate (SAR) to ensure safety limits for tissue heating
Q.102 What does the term “immune‑privileged site” refer to?
An organ that is protected from immune responses, such as the eye or brain, making immunotherapy delivery challenging
A region with high blood flow
A place where immune cells are most abundant
A tumor that responds best to therapy
Explanation - Immune‑privileged sites limit immune activation to prevent tissue damage, posing obstacles for immunotherapy.
Correct answer is: An organ that is protected from immune responses, such as the eye or brain, making immunotherapy delivery challenging
Q.103 Which of the following best explains why “tumor mutational burden (TMB)” is often higher in melanoma compared to many other cancers?
Melanoma cells have larger nuclei
Melanoma is frequently exposed to UV radiation, causing DNA damage and mutations
Melanoma cells produce more cytokines
Melanoma tumors have higher blood pressure
Explanation - UV light induces DNA lesions leading to a high number of somatic mutations, increasing TMB.
Correct answer is: Melanoma is frequently exposed to UV radiation, causing DNA damage and mutations
Q.104 Which of the following is a primary advantage of using “nanoparticle‑based mRNA delivery” for cancer vaccines?
It eliminates the need for any storage conditions
Nanoparticles protect mRNA from degradation and facilitate cellular uptake
Nanoparticles permanently integrate mRNA into the genome
Nanoparticles increase the size of the vaccine, making it easier to inject
Explanation - Lipid nanoparticles shield mRNA from RNases and promote endocytosis, enhancing vaccine efficacy.
Correct answer is: Nanoparticles protect mRNA from degradation and facilitate cellular uptake
Q.105 What is the primary clinical purpose of measuring “circulating tumor DNA (ctDNA)” in patients receiving immunotherapy?
To assess liver function
To monitor tumor burden and detect early resistance or relapse
To evaluate kidney filtration rate
To measure blood glucose levels
Explanation - ctDNA levels reflect tumor dynamics and can provide early signals of treatment response or progression.
Correct answer is: To monitor tumor burden and detect early resistance or relapse
Q.106 Which of the following best describes the therapeutic strategy of “anti‑CD47 antibodies”?
They block the ‘don’t eat me’ signal on cancer cells, enhancing macrophage‑mediated phagocytosis
They stimulate T‑cell receptor signaling
They increase PD‑L1 expression on tumor cells
They act as a cytokine that recruits neutrophils
Explanation - CD47 interacts with SIRPα on macrophages; blocking it removes inhibitory signaling, allowing phagocytosis.
Correct answer is: They block the ‘don’t eat me’ signal on cancer cells, enhancing macrophage‑mediated phagocytosis
Q.107 Which of the following best explains why “antigen spread” can improve long‑term immunity after an initial immunotherapy?
It leads to the loss of immune memory
It broadens the repertoire of T cells to recognize multiple tumor antigens beyond the initial target
It reduces the number of circulating immune cells
It increases the tumor’s growth rate
Explanation - Antigen spread results from tumor cell death releasing additional antigens, stimulating a diversified immune response.
Correct answer is: It broadens the repertoire of T cells to recognize multiple tumor antigens beyond the initial target
Q.108 Which of the following is an emerging strategy to reduce the systemic toxicity of cytokine therapies?
Increasing the cytokine dose tenfold
Using “pro‑drug” cytokines that become active only within the tumor microenvironment
Delivering cytokines via oral tablets
Co‑administering antibiotics
Explanation - Engineered cytokines are activated by tumor‑specific proteases, limiting exposure to healthy tissues.
Correct answer is: Using “pro‑drug” cytokines that become active only within the tumor microenvironment
Q.109 Which of the following best describes the principle behind “immune checkpoint blockade using anti‑CTLA‑4 antibodies”?
CTLA‑4 blockade enhances early T‑cell activation in lymph nodes, increasing the pool of tumor‑reactive T cells
CTLA‑4 blockade directly kills tumor cells
CTLA‑4 blockade suppresses B‑cell antibody production
CTLA‑4 blockade increases tumor angiogenesis
Explanation - CTLA‑4 competes with CD28 for CD80/86; blocking CTLA‑4 removes inhibition during priming, expanding T‑cell responses.
Correct answer is: CTLA‑4 blockade enhances early T‑cell activation in lymph nodes, increasing the pool of tumor‑reactive T cells
Q.110 Which of the following is a key factor influencing the success of an oncolytic virus therapy?
The virus’s ability to replicate selectively in tumor cells while sparing normal tissue
The virus’s color
The virus’s ability to increase blood pressure
The virus’s capacity to produce insulin
Explanation - Selectivity ensures tumor lysis and immune activation without causing widespread infection.
Correct answer is: The virus’s ability to replicate selectively in tumor cells while sparing normal tissue
Q.111 Which of the following best defines the term “immune‑related response criteria (irRC)”?
A set of imaging criteria used to evaluate tumor response in patients receiving immunotherapy, accounting for possible initial tumor enlargement (pseudoprogression)
A method to measure blood pressure changes
A technique for assessing kidney function
A scale for grading pain intensity
Explanation - irRC considers that immune infiltration may temporarily increase lesion size before shrinkage.
Correct answer is: A set of imaging criteria used to evaluate tumor response in patients receiving immunotherapy, accounting for possible initial tumor enlargement (pseudoprogression)
Q.112 Which of the following is a primary advantage of using “engineered cytokine receptors” (e.g., IL‑2Rβ mutants) in CAR‑T cells?
They make CAR‑T cells resistant to all infections
They allow selective responsiveness to engineered cytokines, improving expansion without systemic toxicity
They increase the size of CAR‑T cells for easier detection
They cause CAR‑T cells to become non‑functional
Explanation - Modified receptors respond only to a non‑native cytokine, enabling controlled proliferation of CAR‑T cells in vivo.
Correct answer is: They allow selective responsiveness to engineered cytokines, improving expansion without systemic toxicity
Q.113 Which of the following best explains why “high‑throughput flow cytometry” is valuable in immunotherapy research?
It measures electrical resistance of cells
It enables rapid, multiparametric analysis of immune cell phenotypes and functional states across large sample sets
It determines the pH of cell culture media
It images cells at sub‑nanometer resolution
Explanation - Flow cytometry can simultaneously assess many markers on millions of cells, essential for profiling immune responses.
Correct answer is: It enables rapid, multiparametric analysis of immune cell phenotypes and functional states across large sample sets
Q.114 Which of the following best describes the concept of “immune checkpoint agonism”?
Blocking inhibitory pathways to activate T cells
Activating co‑stimulatory receptors (e.g., OX40, 4‑1BB) to enhance T‑cell proliferation and survival
Suppressing B‑cell antibody production
Inhibiting cytokine release
Explanation - Agonist antibodies bind to activating receptors, providing additional signals for robust T‑cell responses.
Correct answer is: Activating co‑stimulatory receptors (e.g., OX40, 4‑1BB) to enhance T‑cell proliferation and survival
Q.115 Which of the following biomarkers is commonly assessed to predict potential autoimmune side effects from checkpoint inhibitor therapy?
Serum creatinine
Baseline anti‑nuclear antibody (ANA) titers
Blood glucose level
Serum cholesterol
Explanation - Pre‑existing autoantibodies may indicate higher risk for immune‑related adverse events.
Correct answer is: Baseline anti‑nuclear antibody (ANA) titers