Introduction to Drug Delivery Systems # MCQs Practice set

Q.1 What is the primary goal of a drug delivery system?

To increase the manufacturing cost of drugs
To improve the therapeutic efficacy while minimizing side effects
To change the chemical structure of the drug
To eliminate the need for clinical trials
Explanation - A drug delivery system is designed to deliver the drug at the right place, at the right time, and at the right dose to enhance therapeutic outcomes and reduce adverse effects.
Correct answer is: To improve the therapeutic efficacy while minimizing side effects

Q.2 Which route of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action?

Oral
Transdermal
Intravenous
Topical
Explanation - Intravenous injection delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption barriers, leading to rapid therapeutic effect.
Correct answer is: Intravenous

Q.3 A polymer that swells in water and releases a drug over several days is an example of:

Immediate-release system
Sustained-release matrix
Targeted delivery system
Prodrug
Explanation - Sustained-release matrices often use hydrophilic polymers that swell, forming a gel through which the drug diffuses slowly.
Correct answer is: Sustained-release matrix

Q.4 Which of the following is NOT a common advantage of transdermal drug delivery?

Avoidance of first‑pass metabolism
Steady plasma drug concentrations
Ability to deliver large molecules (>10 kDa)
Improved patient compliance
Explanation - The skin barrier limits the passage of large molecules; transdermal systems are generally suitable for small, lipophilic drugs.
Correct answer is: Ability to deliver large molecules (>10 kDa)

Q.5 What does the term 'bioavailability' refer to in drug delivery?

The total amount of drug produced by a manufacturer
The fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged
The number of side effects a drug causes
The duration of drug action
Explanation - Bioavailability measures the proportion of the drug that enters the circulation and is available for therapeutic action.
Correct answer is: The fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation unchanged

Q.6 Which component in a liposomal drug delivery system primarily determines its stability?

Cholesterol content
Drug molecule size
pH of the surrounding medium
Temperature of storage
Explanation - Cholesterol intercalates within the phospholipid bilayer, reducing membrane permeability and enhancing liposome stability.
Correct answer is: Cholesterol content

Q.7 Microspheres used in drug delivery are typically sized:

1–10 µm
10–100 µm
100–500 µm
>1 mm
Explanation - Microspheres generally range from 10 to 100 micrometers, allowing them to be injected or administered orally while providing controlled release.
Correct answer is: 10–100 µm

Q.8 The term 'first‑pass effect' is associated with which route of administration?

Intravenous
Inhalation
Oral
Transdermal
Explanation - Orally administered drugs first pass through the liver via the portal vein, where they may be metabolized before reaching systemic circulation.
Correct answer is: Oral

Q.9 Which of the following materials is commonly used as a biodegradable polymer in drug delivery?

Polyethylene terephthalate (PET)
Polylactic acid (PLA)
Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
Polystyrene (PS)
Explanation - PLA degrades into lactic acid, a naturally occurring metabolite, making it suitable for biodegradable drug delivery implants.
Correct answer is: Polylactic acid (PLA)

Q.10 A drug that is released only when the pH of the environment changes to acidic is an example of:

pH‑responsive delivery system
Temperature‑responsive system
Magnetically‑triggered system
Enzyme‑responsive system
Explanation - pH‑responsive systems exploit differences in pH (e.g., stomach vs. intestine) to trigger drug release at specific sites.
Correct answer is: pH‑responsive delivery system

Q.11 Which drug delivery route bypasses the blood‑brain barrier (BBB)?

Oral administration
Intranasal administration
Intravenous injection
Transdermal patch
Explanation - Intranasal delivery can transport drugs directly to the brain via olfactory and trigeminal pathways, bypassing the BBB.
Correct answer is: Intranasal administration

Q.12 What is the main function of a 'targeting ligand' attached to a nanoparticle?

To increase particle size
To enhance solubility of the drug
To direct the nanoparticle to specific cells or tissues
To provide structural rigidity
Explanation - Targeting ligands (e.g., antibodies, peptides) recognize receptors on target cells, facilitating selective drug delivery.
Correct answer is: To direct the nanoparticle to specific cells or tissues

Q.13 Which of the following is a key parameter in designing a controlled‑release tablet?

Color of the tablet
Hardness of the tablet
Particle size of the active ingredient
Coating thickness
Explanation - Coating thickness, especially in matrix or reservoir tablets, controls the rate at which the drug diffuses out, affecting release kinetics.
Correct answer is: Coating thickness

Q.14 The term 'pharmacokinetics' encompasses:

Drug–receptor binding affinity
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME)
Mechanism of drug action at the molecular level
Allergy potential of a drug
Explanation - Pharmacokinetics studies how the body affects a drug, summarised by the ADME processes.
Correct answer is: Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME)

Q.15 A drug encapsulated in a polymeric nanoparticle that releases the drug when exposed to a magnetic field is an example of:

Passive targeting
Magnetically‑triggered release
pH‑responsive release
Thermal‑responsive release
Explanation - Magnetic fields can induce heating or structural changes in magnetic nanoparticles, prompting drug release on demand.
Correct answer is: Magnetically‑triggered release

Q.16 Which of the following is the most common biodegradable polymer used in sutures that can also serve as a drug carrier?

Polyethylene (PE)
Polyglycolic acid (PGA)
Polypropylene (PP)
Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE)
Explanation - PGA degrades by hydrolysis and is widely used in absorbable sutures and drug delivery matrices.
Correct answer is: Polyglycolic acid (PGA)

Q.17 Which factor most directly influences the rate of drug diffusion through a membrane?

Molecular weight of the drug
Color of the drug solution
Viscosity of the surrounding air
Electrical conductivity of the membrane
Explanation - According to Fick’s law, smaller molecules diffuse faster; molecular weight is a primary determinant.
Correct answer is: Molecular weight of the drug

Q.18 In a depot injection, the drug is:

Rapidly cleared from the bloodstream
Stored in a localized site for prolonged release
Converted into an inactive form
Delivered directly to the brain
Explanation - Depot injections form a reservoir (depot) at the injection site, allowing slow, sustained drug release over weeks or months.
Correct answer is: Stored in a localized site for prolonged release

Q.19 Which delivery system is specifically designed to release a drug in response to glucose levels?

Thermosensitive hydrogel
Glucose‑responsive insulin nanogel
pH‑responsive polymer
Magnetically‑triggered liposome
Explanation - These nanogels contain glucose‑binding moieties that swell or collapse in response to blood glucose, controlling insulin release.
Correct answer is: Glucose‑responsive insulin nanogel

Q.20 A drug that is chemically linked to a carrier and becomes active only after enzymatic cleavage is called:

Prodrug
Nanoparticle
Polymer conjugate
Micelle
Explanation - Prodrugs are inactive precursors that are metabolized into the active drug, often improving solubility or targeting.
Correct answer is: Prodrug

Q.21 Which of the following best describes 'first‑order kinetics' in drug release?

The release rate is constant over time.
The release rate decreases exponentially with time.
The release rate is proportional to the amount of drug remaining.
The release rate depends on the surface area only.
Explanation - First‑order kinetics means the amount released per unit time decreases as the drug reservoir depletes.
Correct answer is: The release rate is proportional to the amount of drug remaining.

Q.22 Which route of administration is most suitable for delivering large peptide drugs that are degraded in the gastrointestinal tract?

Oral
Sublingual
Transdermal
Injectable (subcutaneous or intramuscular)
Explanation - Peptides are susceptible to enzymatic degradation in the GI tract; injection bypasses this barrier.
Correct answer is: Injectable (subcutaneous or intramuscular)

Q.23 In the context of drug delivery, 'bioadhesive' polymers are used to:

Increase drug solubility
Prolong residence time at a mucosal surface
Accelerate drug metabolism
Reduce drug potency
Explanation - Bioadhesive polymers can stick to mucosal tissues (e.g., buccal, vaginal), enhancing drug absorption and duration.
Correct answer is: Prolong residence time at a mucosal surface

Q.24 Which of the following is a key advantage of using nanocarriers for anticancer drugs?

They guarantee 100% cure rates
They reduce the need for surgical intervention
They allow preferential accumulation in tumor tissue via the enhanced permeability and retention (EPR) effect
They eliminate all side effects
Explanation - Nanocarriers exploit the leaky vasculature of tumors and poor lymphatic drainage, leading to passive targeting of cancer cells.
Correct answer is: They allow preferential accumulation in tumor tissue via the enhanced permeability and retention (EPR) effect

Q.25 What does the term 'zero‑order release' imply about the drug release profile?

Release rate accelerates over time
Release rate is constant regardless of the amount of drug remaining
Release rate is inversely proportional to the concentration gradient
Release only occurs at the beginning of therapy
Explanation - Zero‑order kinetics yields a linear release profile, providing a steady drug plasma concentration.
Correct answer is: Release rate is constant regardless of the amount of drug remaining

Q.26 Which analytical technique is most commonly used to determine the particle size distribution of a nanoparticle suspension?

Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
Dynamic light scattering (DLS)
Fourier‑transform infrared spectroscopy (FTIR)
Gas chromatography (GC)
Explanation - DLS measures fluctuations in scattered light intensity caused by Brownian motion, yielding size distribution data.
Correct answer is: Dynamic light scattering (DLS)

Q.27 A drug that must be released in the colon to treat ulcerative colitis is best delivered using:

Enteric‑coated tablets
Immediate‑release tablets
Transdermal patches
Intravenous infusion
Explanation - Enteric coating resists gastric acidity and dissolves at higher pH in the intestine, targeting drug release to the colon.
Correct answer is: Enteric‑coated tablets

Q.28 Which property of a drug molecule primarily determines its ability to cross the blood‑brain barrier?

Molecular weight
Melting point
pKa only
Optical activity
Explanation - Low molecular weight (generally <400–500 Da) and high lipophilicity facilitate BBB penetration.
Correct answer is: Molecular weight

Q.29 In a reservoir-type drug delivery system, the drug is:

Dispersed uniformly throughout a polymer matrix
Encapsulated in a core surrounded by a rate‑controlling membrane
Chemically bonded to the polymer backbone
Present as a crystalline solid on the surface
Explanation - Reservoir systems separate the drug core from the external environment by a membrane that modulates release.
Correct answer is: Encapsulated in a core surrounded by a rate‑controlling membrane

Q.30 Which of the following is a major limitation of oral drug delivery?

Rapid onset of action
First‑pass metabolism
High patient compliance
Ease of dose adjustment
Explanation - Orally administered drugs are absorbed via the portal vein and may be extensively metabolized in the liver before reaching systemic circulation.
Correct answer is: First‑pass metabolism

Q.31 The term 'pharmacodynamics' refers to:

The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion
The interaction of drugs with biological targets and resulting effects
The economic impact of drug production
The chemical synthesis pathways of pharmaceuticals
Explanation - Pharmacodynamics describes what the drug does to the body, including mechanisms of action and dose‑response relationships.
Correct answer is: The interaction of drugs with biological targets and resulting effects

Q.32 Which delivery system can provide pulsatile drug release, mimicking circadian rhythms?

Matrix tablet
Osmotic pump
Enteric‑coated granule within a capsule
Immediate‑release capsule
Explanation - Enteric-coated granules can be formulated to dissolve at predetermined times, creating delayed or pulsatile release patterns.
Correct answer is: Enteric‑coated granule within a capsule

Q.33 A 'smart' drug delivery system typically incorporates:

Fixed dose tablets only
Sensors or stimuli‑responsive materials
Only natural polymers
No regulatory oversight
Explanation - Smart systems adapt release in response to internal (pH, enzymes) or external (temperature, magnetic field) cues.
Correct answer is: Sensors or stimuli‑responsive materials

Q.34 Which factor does NOT significantly affect the permeability of a drug across a biological membrane?

Lipophilicity
Molecular size
Charge at physiological pH
Color of the drug
Explanation - Permeability is governed by physicochemical properties like lipophilicity, size, and ionization, not visual characteristics.
Correct answer is: Color of the drug

Q.35 A drug delivery system that releases its payload when exposed to ultrasound is an example of:

Thermal‑responsive system
Ultrasound‑triggered release
pH‑responsive system
Magnetically‑triggered system
Explanation - Ultrasound can cause cavitation or heating, disrupting carriers and releasing the drug on demand.
Correct answer is: Ultrasound‑triggered release

Q.36 Which type of formulation is most suitable for delivering vaccines to the skin without needles?

Microneedle patches
Transdermal gels
Oral tablets
Inhalation aerosols
Explanation - Microneedles create micro‑channels in the stratum corneum, allowing antigen delivery with minimal pain.
Correct answer is: Microneedle patches

Q.37 What is the primary purpose of a 'rate‑controlling membrane' in an osmotic pump device?

To store the drug in a solid form
To regulate the influx of water and thereby control drug release rate
To change the drug’s chemical structure
To provide mechanical strength only
Explanation - Osmotic pumps use a semipermeable membrane that allows water entry, generating pressure that pushes the drug out at a constant rate.
Correct answer is: To regulate the influx of water and thereby control drug release rate

Q.38 Which of the following polymers is known for its thermoresponsive gelation near body temperature?

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
Poly(N‑isopropylacrylamide) (PNIPAM)
Polylactic‑glycolic acid (PLGA)
Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
Explanation - PNIPAM exhibits a lower critical solution temperature (~32 °C) and forms a gel at physiological temperatures.
Correct answer is: Poly(N‑isopropylacrylamide) (PNIPAM)

Q.39 The term 'burst release' in drug delivery refers to:

A slow, continuous drug release over weeks
A rapid initial release of a large fraction of the drug
Release only after a specific stimulus
No release at all
Explanation - Burst release is often observed in matrix systems where drug near the surface diffuses out quickly upon administration.
Correct answer is: A rapid initial release of a large fraction of the drug

Q.40 Which of these is a characteristic advantage of using liposomes for drug delivery?

Unlimited drug loading capacity
Inability to fuse with cell membranes
Biocompatibility and ability to encapsulate both hydrophilic and hydrophobic drugs
Resistance to all forms of degradation
Explanation - Liposomes have an aqueous core and lipid bilayer, allowing simultaneous delivery of diverse drug types with low toxicity.
Correct answer is: Biocompatibility and ability to encapsulate both hydrophilic and hydrophobic drugs

Q.41 A 'sustained‑release' dosage form is primarily intended to:

Eliminate the need for a doctor’s prescription
Maintain therapeutic drug levels over an extended period
Increase the frequency of dosing
Provide an immediate high concentration of drug
Explanation - Sustained‑release formulations release drug gradually, reducing dosing frequency and maintaining stable plasma concentrations.
Correct answer is: Maintain therapeutic drug levels over an extended period

Q.42 Which drug delivery approach is most suitable for delivering insulin without needles?

Inhalable dry‑powder insulin
Transdermal patch
Oral tablet
Intramuscular injection
Explanation - Inhalable insulin bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and can be absorbed through the alveolar epithelium, offering a needle‑free option.
Correct answer is: Inhalable dry‑powder insulin

Q.43 The primary mechanism by which polymeric micelles improve solubility of poorly water‑soluble drugs is:

Chemical modification of the drug
Physical encapsulation of the drug within the hydrophobic core
Changing the drug’s pKa
Increasing drug ionization
Explanation - Amphiphilic block copolymers self‑assemble into micelles; hydrophobic drugs partition into the core, enhancing apparent solubility.
Correct answer is: Physical encapsulation of the drug within the hydrophobic core

Q.44 Which of the following best describes 'active targeting' in nanomedicine?

Using magnetic fields to guide particles
Exploiting the EPR effect alone
Attaching ligands that bind specific receptors on target cells
Relying on random distribution of nanoparticles
Explanation - Active targeting involves functionalizing nanocarriers with molecules (e.g., antibodies) that recognize target cell surface markers.
Correct answer is: Attaching ligands that bind specific receptors on target cells

Q.45 What is the main purpose of a 'coating' on an oral tablet?

To make the tablet taste sweet
To modify the release profile, protect the drug from the environment, or mask taste
To increase the tablet’s weight
To change the drug’s pharmacological activity
Explanation - Coatings can be enteric, sustained‑release, or functional (e.g., taste‑masking), providing multiple benefits.
Correct answer is: To modify the release profile, protect the drug from the environment, or mask taste

Q.46 A drug delivery system that uses a biodegradable polymer which hydrolyzes into non‑toxic monomers is called:

Non‑degradable implant
Biodegradable polymeric implant
Metallic stent
Permanent prosthesis
Explanation - Biodegradable implants degrade into safe by‑products (e.g., lactic acid), eliminating the need for surgical removal.
Correct answer is: Biodegradable polymeric implant

Q.47 Which of the following is a commonly used biodegradable polymer for making nanoparticles?

Polyethylene (PE)
Polylactic‑co‑glycolic acid (PLGA)
Polystyrene (PS)
Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
Explanation - PLGA is FDA‑approved, degrades into lactic and glycolic acids, and is widely used for nano‑ and microparticle drug carriers.
Correct answer is: Polylactic‑co‑glycolic acid (PLGA)

Q.48 In the context of drug delivery, 'hydrogel' primarily refers to:

A solid metal matrix
A polymer network that can retain large amounts of water
A gas‑filled capsule
A crystalline drug form
Explanation - Hydrogels are highly hydrated, biocompatible matrices useful for localized and controlled drug release.
Correct answer is: A polymer network that can retain large amounts of water

Q.49 Which physiologic barrier is most challenging for oral peptide drug delivery?

Blood‑brain barrier
Gastric acid environment and proteolytic enzymes
Skin stratum corneum
Pulmonary surfactant
Explanation - Peptides are degraded by gastric acid and enzymes, leading to poor absorption when taken orally.
Correct answer is: Gastric acid environment and proteolytic enzymes

Q.50 An 'osmotic pump' releases drug primarily based on:

Electrical stimulation
Diffusion through a polymer matrix
Osmotic pressure generated by water influx
Enzymatic degradation
Explanation - Water enters the semipermeable membrane, creating pressure that pushes the drug out through a delivery orifice at a constant rate.
Correct answer is: Osmotic pressure generated by water influx

Q.51 Which of the following is an example of a 'passive targeting' strategy?

Ligand‑mediated receptor binding
Exploiting the enhanced permeability and retention (EPR) effect
Applying an external magnetic field
Using a temperature‑sensitive polymer
Explanation - Passive targeting relies on natural tumor vasculature properties to accumulate nanocarriers without specific ligands.
Correct answer is: Exploiting the enhanced permeability and retention (EPR) effect

Q.52 The main disadvantage of using a high dose of a drug in a sustained‑release formulation is:

Rapid clearance from the body
Potential for dose dumping if the matrix fails
Immediate therapeutic effect
Reduced patient compliance
Explanation - If the release mechanism is compromised, a large amount of drug may be released suddenly, causing toxicity.
Correct answer is: Potential for dose dumping if the matrix fails

Q.53 Which parameter is most critical for the design of a transdermal patch?

Drug’s volatility
Drug’s molecular weight and lipophilicity
Drug’s color
Drug’s taste
Explanation - Transdermal absorption requires low molecular weight (<500 Da) and adequate lipophilicity to cross the stratum corneum.
Correct answer is: Drug’s molecular weight and lipophilicity

Q.54 A drug delivery system that utilizes an external ultrasound source to release the drug at a specific site is called:

Thermal gel
Ultrasound‑responsive nanocarrier
pH‑sensitive tablet
Magnetically‑guided liposome
Explanation - Ultrasound can induce cavitation or heating, triggering drug release from specially designed carriers.
Correct answer is: Ultrasound‑responsive nanocarrier

Q.55 Which of the following is a typical characteristic of a 'matrix' type controlled‑release tablet?

Drug is dispersed in a polymeric matrix that controls release by diffusion and erosion
Drug is placed in a hollow core surrounded by a membrane
Drug is chemically bonded to the matrix
Drug is released only after the matrix dissolves completely
Explanation - Matrix tablets embed the drug in a polymer that gradually releases drug via diffusion and matrix degradation.
Correct answer is: Drug is dispersed in a polymeric matrix that controls release by diffusion and erosion

Q.56 Which of the following is an example of a biologically triggered drug delivery system?

pH‑sensitive hydrogel that releases insulin in response to glucose‑induced pH change
Temperature‑controlled patch that releases drug at 37 °C
Magnetically‑guided carrier activated by an external magnet
Light‑activated liposome
Explanation - Biological triggers involve endogenous cues (e.g., pH, enzymes) that initiate drug release.
Correct answer is: pH‑sensitive hydrogel that releases insulin in response to glucose‑induced pH change

Q.57 The primary role of surfactants in nanoparticle formulation is to:

Increase the drug’s potency
Stabilize nanoparticles by reducing interfacial tension
Alter the drug’s pharmacodynamics
Change the drug’s molecular weight
Explanation - Surfactants adsorb at the particle surface, preventing aggregation and providing colloidal stability.
Correct answer is: Stabilize nanoparticles by reducing interfacial tension

Q.58 Which analytical method is most suitable for quantifying drug content in a polymeric microsphere?

High‑performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)
X‑ray diffraction (XRD)
Scanning electron microscopy (SEM)
Thermogravimetric analysis (TGA)
Explanation - HPLC separates and quantifies drug molecules extracted from the microspheres with high precision.
Correct answer is: High‑performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)

Q.59 A 'prolonged‑release' injectable formulation typically contains:

Highly soluble salt of the drug
A biodegradable polymer matrix
A volatile organic solvent
A large amount of surfactant
Explanation - Injectable depots often embed the drug in polymers like PLGA, providing sustained release as the polymer degrades.
Correct answer is: A biodegradable polymer matrix

Q.60 Which of the following best describes 'first‑order absorption'?

Absorption rate is constant regardless of drug concentration
Absorption rate decreases proportionally with the decreasing amount of drug left to absorb
Absorption stops after a fixed time
Absorption is independent of concentration gradient
Explanation - First‑order processes are concentration‑dependent; as drug concentration drops, the rate drops as well.
Correct answer is: Absorption rate decreases proportionally with the decreasing amount of drug left to absorb

Q.61 What is the main advantage of using a 'patch pump' for insulin delivery over multiple daily injections?

It completely eliminates insulin requirement
Provides continuous, adjustable insulin infusion mimicking physiological needs
Makes insulin taste better
Reduces insulin’s molecular weight
Explanation - Patch pumps enable basal and bolus dosing, improving glycemic control and patient convenience.
Correct answer is: Provides continuous, adjustable insulin infusion mimicking physiological needs

Q.62 Which factor is most important for ensuring sterility of an injectable drug delivery system?

Particle size distribution
Manufacturing temperature
Terminal sterilization method (e.g., autoclaving, gamma irradiation)
Color of the solution
Explanation - Sterility is achieved by validated sterilization processes that eliminate microbial contaminants without compromising product integrity.
Correct answer is: Terminal sterilization method (e.g., autoclaving, gamma irradiation)

Q.63 A drug delivery system that releases drug only after exposure to a specific enzyme is called:

Enzyme‑responsive delivery system
Temperature‑responsive system
pH‑responsive system
Magnetically‑triggered system
Explanation - Enzyme‑responsive carriers are designed to degrade or open in the presence of target enzymes, enabling site‑specific release.
Correct answer is: Enzyme‑responsive delivery system

Q.64 Which of the following is the most common reason for using an 'enteric coating' on a tablet?

To improve the tablet’s aesthetic appearance
To protect the drug from gastric acid and release it in the intestine
To make the tablet dissolve faster in the stomach
To increase the tablet’s weight
Explanation - Enteric coatings are pH‑sensitive, dissolving at higher pH (intestinal) while resisting acidic gastric conditions.
Correct answer is: To protect the drug from gastric acid and release it in the intestine

Q.65 Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of a 'nanoparticle' drug carrier?

Size range of 1–100 nm
Large surface area to volume ratio
Ability to cross biological barriers more readily
Inability to be functionalized with targeting ligands
Explanation - Nanoparticles can be readily functionalized with ligands; this statement is false.
Correct answer is: Inability to be functionalized with targeting ligands

Q.66 Which of the following best defines 'targeted drug delivery'?

Delivery of a drug to a specific organ, tissue, or cell type to increase efficacy and reduce side effects
Administration of a drug without any formulation
Use of the highest possible drug dose
Random distribution of drug throughout the body
Explanation - Targeted delivery aims to concentrate the therapeutic agent at the disease site while sparing healthy tissues.
Correct answer is: Delivery of a drug to a specific organ, tissue, or cell type to increase efficacy and reduce side effects

Q.67 Which of the following is a primary challenge when formulating a drug for nasal delivery?

High enzymatic activity in nasal mucosa
Low vascularization of the nasal cavity
Very acidic pH
Lack of mucosal surface area
Explanation - Nasal enzymes can degrade drugs, especially peptides, reducing bioavailability.
Correct answer is: High enzymatic activity in nasal mucosa

Q.68 The 'burst effect' observed in some drug‑loaded hydrogels is primarily due to:

Rapid diffusion of drug located near the surface
Complete degradation of the hydrogel matrix
Temperature increase of the hydrogel
Magnetic field application
Explanation - Drug near the hydrogel surface encounters a short diffusion path, leading to a quick initial release.
Correct answer is: Rapid diffusion of drug located near the surface

Q.69 Which route of drug delivery is most appropriate for delivering a vaccine that requires activation of immune cells in the skin?

Intramuscular injection
Oral tablet
Transdermal microneedle patch
Inhalation aerosol
Explanation - Microneedles penetrate the epidermis, delivering antigen directly to skin‑resident antigen‑presenting cells.
Correct answer is: Transdermal microneedle patch

Q.70 Which factor most directly influences the rate of drug release from a polymeric matrix tablet?

Color of the tablet
Polymer swelling capacity and porosity
Shape of the tablet
Brand name of the drug
Explanation - Swelling creates channels for drug diffusion; higher porosity generally increases release rate.
Correct answer is: Polymer swelling capacity and porosity

Q.71 A drug delivery system that releases drug in response to a temperature rise above 40 °C is called:

Thermosensitive (temperature‑responsive) system
pH‑responsive system
Magnetically‑triggered system
Enzyme‑responsive system
Explanation - Thermosensitive polymers undergo phase transition at a set temperature, enabling controlled release upon heating.
Correct answer is: Thermosensitive (temperature‑responsive) system

Q.72 Which of the following is an example of a 'carrier‑mediated' drug transport mechanism across cell membranes?

Simple diffusion
Facilitated diffusion via transport proteins
Passive diffusion through lipid bilayer
Endocytosis of liposomes
Explanation - Carrier‑mediated transport involves specific proteins that assist the passage of drugs across membranes.
Correct answer is: Facilitated diffusion via transport proteins

Q.73 A formulation that contains a drug in a supersaturated state to improve absorption is known as:

Solid dispersion
Supersaturable self‑emulsifying drug delivery system (SSEDDS)
Immediate‑release tablet
Enteric coating
Explanation - SSEDDS maintain a supersaturated solution in the gastrointestinal tract, enhancing dissolution and absorption of poorly soluble drugs.
Correct answer is: Supersaturable self‑emulsifying drug delivery system (SSEDDS)

Q.74 Which of the following best explains why biodegradable polymeric implants do not require surgical removal?

They dissolve instantly upon implantation
They degrade into biocompatible by‑products that are eliminated by the body
They become invisible to the immune system
They are made of metal
Explanation - Biodegradable polymers break down into metabolizable monomers (e.g., lactic acid) that are naturally cleared.
Correct answer is: They degrade into biocompatible by‑products that are eliminated by the body

Q.75 Which analytical technique is commonly used to assess the crystallinity of a drug within a polymeric matrix?

Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)
Mass spectrometry (MS)
Ultraviolet‑visible spectroscopy (UV‑Vis)
Atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS)
Explanation - DSC measures heat flow associated with melting or glass transition, indicating the crystalline or amorphous state of the drug.
Correct answer is: Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC)

Q.76 In drug delivery, the term 'theranostics' refers to:

A therapy that also provides diagnostic information
A drug with no side effects
A delivery system that never degrades
A formulation that is only used in research
Explanation - Theranostic platforms combine therapeutic agents with imaging or diagnostic markers for simultaneous treatment and monitoring.
Correct answer is: A therapy that also provides diagnostic information

Q.77 Which of the following is a major limitation of using liposomes for oral drug delivery?

Excellent stability in gastric acid
Rapid absorption in the small intestine
Instability in the gastrointestinal tract leading to drug degradation
Inability to encapsulate hydrophilic drugs
Explanation - Liposomes can be degraded by bile salts and digestive enzymes, limiting their effectiveness for oral delivery.
Correct answer is: Instability in the gastrointestinal tract leading to drug degradation

Q.78 The main purpose of adding a 'plasticizer' to a polymeric film used in drug patches is to:

Increase the film’s rigidity
Improve flexibility and reduce brittleness
Change the drug’s chemical structure
Make the film opaque
Explanation - Plasticizers intercalate between polymer chains, lowering glass transition temperature and enhancing flexibility.
Correct answer is: Improve flexibility and reduce brittleness

Q.79 Which of the following delivery routes offers the fastest absorption of a drug into systemic circulation?

Intramuscular injection
Intravenous injection
Subcutaneous injection
Oral administration
Explanation - IV injection delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, providing immediate systemic availability.
Correct answer is: Intravenous injection

Q.80 A drug that is formulated in a 'microemulsion' is primarily intended to:

Increase the drug’s molecular weight
Enhance solubility and bioavailability of poorly water‑soluble drugs
Make the drug taste bitter
Reduce the drug’s stability
Explanation - Microemulsions are thermodynamically stable, nanoscale mixtures that improve dissolution and absorption of hydrophobic drugs.
Correct answer is: Enhance solubility and bioavailability of poorly water‑soluble drugs

Q.81 Which of the following best describes a 'hydrophobic' drug?

A drug that dissolves readily in water
A drug that preferentially partitions into lipid environments
A drug that has a high electrical charge
A drug that is unstable at low pH
Explanation - Hydrophobic drugs have low water solubility and high affinity for lipid membranes, influencing formulation strategies.
Correct answer is: A drug that preferentially partitions into lipid environments

Q.82 The use of a 'nanotube' as a drug carrier primarily benefits drug delivery by:

Providing a magnetic field for targeting
Offering a high surface‑area-to‑volume ratio for drug loading
Increasing the drug’s taste
Changing the drug’s pKa
Explanation - Nanotubes have a large internal surface area, enabling high drug loading capacities and controlled release.
Correct answer is: Offering a high surface‑area-to‑volume ratio for drug loading

Q.83 Which of the following is a key advantage of using a 'microsphere' depot for vaccine delivery?

Instantaneous release of the antigen
Single‑dose administration with prolonged antigen release, reducing booster shots
Elimination of the need for cold chain storage
Ability to cross the blood‑brain barrier
Explanation - Microsphere depots can release antigens over weeks to months, providing sustained immune stimulation.
Correct answer is: Single‑dose administration with prolonged antigen release, reducing booster shots

Q.84 In a 'targeted liposome' system, the inclusion of a PEG (polyethylene glycol) layer primarily serves to:

Increase the liposome’s size
Reduce immune recognition and prolong circulation time
Make the liposome fluorescent
Trigger drug release on pH change
Explanation - PEGylation creates a steric barrier, minimizing opsonization and extending the liposome’s half‑life in blood.
Correct answer is: Reduce immune recognition and prolong circulation time

Q.85 Which type of drug delivery system is specifically designed to release drug in a pulsatile manner to match circadian disease patterns?

Zero‑order release tablet
Chronotherapeutic delivery system
Immediate‑release capsule
Osmotic pump
Explanation - Chronotherapeutic systems synchronize drug release with the body’s biological rhythms, delivering pulses at predetermined times.
Correct answer is: Chronotherapeutic delivery system

Q.86 A key reason for using a 'hydrophilic polymer' in a matrix tablet for a water‑soluble drug is to:

Prevent drug release
Increase the rate of drug dissolution and release
Make the tablet taste sweet
Change the drug’s molecular weight
Explanation - Hydrophilic polymers swell upon contact with water, facilitating faster drug dissolution and diffusion.
Correct answer is: Increase the rate of drug dissolution and release

Q.87 Which of the following best describes the 'enhanced permeability and retention' (EPR) effect?

Active transport of drugs across cell membranes
Passive accumulation of nanoparticles in tumor tissue due to leaky vasculature
Enzyme‑mediated drug activation
Magnetic attraction of drug carriers
Explanation - The EPR effect allows nanosized carriers to preferentially extravasate and remain within tumor interstitium.
Correct answer is: Passive accumulation of nanoparticles in tumor tissue due to leaky vasculature

Q.88 In drug delivery, a 'hydrogel' can be used for:

Instantly releasing all drug within seconds
Providing localized, sustained release of therapeutics
Increasing the drug’s volatility
Reducing the drug’s molecular weight
Explanation - Hydrogels can be implanted or applied topically, slowly releasing drug as they degrade or swell.
Correct answer is: Providing localized, sustained release of therapeutics

Q.89 Which property of a drug is most critical for successful transdermal delivery?

High water solubility
Low molecular weight and moderate lipophilicity
Strong odor
Bright color
Explanation - Transdermal delivery favors drugs <500 Da and with balanced lipophilic/hydrophilic character to cross the skin barrier.
Correct answer is: Low molecular weight and moderate lipophilicity

Q.90 A 'bioerodible' polymer used in drug delivery is designed to:

Remain permanently in the body
Degrade in response to biological conditions, releasing the drug
Increase the drug’s potency
Make the drug fluorescent
Explanation - Bioerodible polymers hydrolyze or enzymatically degrade, providing controlled drug release and eventual clearance.
Correct answer is: Degrade in response to biological conditions, releasing the drug

Q.91 Which technique is commonly employed to produce uniform polymeric nanoparticles?

Melt extrusion
Emulsion‑solvent evaporation
Lyophilization
Electroplating
Explanation - This method creates an oil‑in‑water emulsion, followed by solvent removal, yielding nanoparticles of controlled size.
Correct answer is: Emulsion‑solvent evaporation

Q.92 The term 'dose dumping' refers to:

Controlled, steady release of drug
A rapid, uncontrolled release of a large amount of drug from a controlled‑release formulation
Complete absence of drug release
Gradual increase in drug dose over months
Explanation - Dose dumping can occur due to formulation failure, posing safety risks.
Correct answer is: A rapid, uncontrolled release of a large amount of drug from a controlled‑release formulation

Q.93 Which of the following is a primary benefit of using a 'nanoparticle' delivery system for anticancer drugs?

Complete eradication of all cancer cells
Reduced systemic toxicity and enhanced tumor accumulation
Elimination of the need for surgical removal of tumors
Permanent cure after a single dose
Explanation - Nanoparticles can preferentially accumulate in tumors (EPR) and release drug locally, minimizing side effects.
Correct answer is: Reduced systemic toxicity and enhanced tumor accumulation

Q.94 A 'polymeric micelle' typically consists of:

A solid lipid core and aqueous shell
A hydrophobic core surrounded by a hydrophilic corona
A metallic core with polymeric coating
A crystalline drug matrix
Explanation - Amphiphilic block copolymers self‑assemble into micelles with a core that solubilizes hydrophobic drugs and a hydrophilic shell that stabilizes the particle in water.
Correct answer is: A hydrophobic core surrounded by a hydrophilic corona

Q.95 Which of the following statements about 'controlled‑release' formulations is FALSE?

They can reduce dosing frequency
They always completely avoid first‑pass metabolism
They can maintain plasma drug levels within the therapeutic window
They often improve patient compliance
Explanation - Only certain routes (e.g., parenteral, transdermal) avoid first‑pass metabolism; oral controlled‑release tablets may still undergo it.
Correct answer is: They always completely avoid first‑pass metabolism

Q.96 What is the main purpose of using a 'bioadhesive' polymer in buccal drug delivery?

To increase drug’s taste
To prolong the residence time of the dosage form on the buccal mucosa
To make the formulation waterproof
To accelerate drug metabolism
Explanation - Bioadhesive polymers stick to mucosal surfaces, allowing more drug to be absorbed over an extended period.
Correct answer is: To prolong the residence time of the dosage form on the buccal mucosa

Q.97 Which of the following best characterizes a 'smart' insulin delivery system?

A device that releases insulin only when blood glucose exceeds a set threshold
A patch that releases a fixed dose of insulin every hour
An oral tablet that dissolves instantly
A subcutaneous injection that lasts 24 hours
Explanation - Smart insulin systems sense glucose levels and modulate insulin release accordingly.
Correct answer is: A device that releases insulin only when blood glucose exceeds a set threshold

Q.98 The 'Higuchi model' is used to describe drug release from:

Matrix systems where diffusion is the primary mechanism
Reservoir systems with zero‑order kinetics
Enteric‑coated tablets
Osmotic pumps
Explanation - The Higuchi equation predicts release as a square‑root of time relationship for diffusion‑controlled matrices.
Correct answer is: Matrix systems where diffusion is the primary mechanism

Q.99 Which of the following is a typical characteristic of a 'nanoparticle' used for gene delivery?

High electrical conductivity
Ability to protect nucleic acids from enzymatic degradation
Inability to enter cells
Large size (>1 µm)
Explanation - Nanoparticles can encapsulate DNA/RNA, shielding them from nucleases and facilitating cellular uptake.
Correct answer is: Ability to protect nucleic acids from enzymatic degradation

Q.100 Which of the following is NOT a typical stimulus used to trigger drug release from a responsive delivery system?

pH change
Temperature shift
Magnetic field
Gravitational force
Explanation - While gravity can influence settling, it is not commonly employed as an active trigger for drug release.
Correct answer is: Gravitational force

Q.101 A 'tablet' that is designed to disintegrate rapidly in the mouth without water is called:

Effervescent tablet
Chewable tablet
Orally disintegrating tablet (ODT)
Enteric tablet
Explanation - ODTs dissolve or disintegrate within seconds in the oral cavity, enhancing convenience for patients with swallowing difficulties.
Correct answer is: Orally disintegrating tablet (ODT)

Q.102 Which of the following delivery approaches is most suitable for delivering a vaccine that requires stimulation of mucosal immunity?

Intramuscular injection
Oral capsule
Intranasal spray
Transdermal patch
Explanation - Intranasal administration targets the nasal-associated lymphoid tissue (NALT), promoting mucosal immune responses.
Correct answer is: Intranasal spray

Q.103 Which of the following is a common reason for using a 'dual‑release' formulation?

To deliver two drugs with identical release profiles
To provide an immediate release of a loading dose followed by a sustained release maintenance dose
To increase the tablet’s weight
To change the drug’s chemical composition
Explanation - Dual‑release systems combine rapid onset with prolonged therapy, improving therapeutic outcomes.
Correct answer is: To provide an immediate release of a loading dose followed by a sustained release maintenance dose

Q.104 Which property of a drug most influences its ability to be delivered via a 'transdermal patch'?

Melting point
Molecular size and lipophilicity
Optical activity
Electrical conductivity
Explanation - Small, moderately lipophilic molecules penetrate the stratum corneum more efficiently.
Correct answer is: Molecular size and lipophilicity

Q.105 The main purpose of 'enteric coating' on a tablet is to:

Mask the taste of the drug
Prevent drug release in the acidic stomach environment
Make the tablet dissolve faster in water
Increase the drug’s potency
Explanation - Enteric coatings are pH‑sensitive and dissolve at the higher pH of the intestine, protecting acid‑labile drugs.
Correct answer is: Prevent drug release in the acidic stomach environment

Q.106 Which of the following is a typical characteristic of a 'polymeric implant' used for long‑term drug delivery?

Requires daily replacement
Provides sustained release over months to years
Dissolves instantly upon implantation
Contains metallic components only
Explanation - Polymeric implants can be engineered to degrade slowly, delivering drug continuously over extended periods.
Correct answer is: Provides sustained release over months to years

Q.107 A 'nanocarrier' that changes its shape in response to temperature is an example of:

Magnetically‑responsive system
Thermo‑responsive system
pH‑responsive system
Enzyme‑responsive system
Explanation - Thermo‑responsive polymers undergo conformational changes at specific temperatures, enabling triggered release.
Correct answer is: Thermo‑responsive system

Q.108 Which of the following is a primary limitation of oral drug delivery for peptide therapeutics?

High patient compliance
Low cost of manufacturing
Enzymatic degradation in the gastrointestinal tract
Rapid absorption through the intestinal wall
Explanation - Peptides are susceptible to proteases in the GI tract, leading to poor bioavailability when taken orally.
Correct answer is: Enzymatic degradation in the gastrointestinal tract

Q.109 In drug delivery, the term 'pharmacokinetic profile' refers to:

The chemical synthesis route of the drug
The time‑course of drug concentration in the body
The mechanism of drug action at receptors
The manufacturing cost of the dosage form
Explanation - Pharmacokinetics tracks absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion over time.
Correct answer is: The time‑course of drug concentration in the body

Q.110 Which of the following delivery strategies is designed to release drug specifically at the site of inflammation?

pH‑responsive system that activates in acidic inflamed tissue
Temperature‑responsive system that activates at body temperature
Magnetic‑responsive system activated by external magnet
Enteric coating that dissolves in the stomach
Explanation - Inflamed tissues often have a lower pH; pH‑responsive carriers can release drug preferentially in such environments.
Correct answer is: pH‑responsive system that activates in acidic inflamed tissue

Q.111 The term 'bioequivalence' in generic drug development means:

The generic drug has a different mechanism of action than the brand name drug
The generic and brand name drug have similar bioavailability and pharmacokinetic profiles
The generic drug is cheaper to produce
The generic drug uses a different active ingredient
Explanation - Bioequivalence ensures that the generic product delivers the same amount of active ingredient into the bloodstream as the original.
Correct answer is: The generic and brand name drug have similar bioavailability and pharmacokinetic profiles

Q.112 Which of the following best describes a 'hydrophilic matrix tablet'?

A tablet that releases drug only after a pH trigger
A tablet where drug release is controlled by polymer swelling and diffusion
A tablet that dissolves instantly in water
A tablet that contains metallic particles
Explanation - Hydrophilic polymers absorb water, swell, and form a gel through which drug diffuses over time.
Correct answer is: A tablet where drug release is controlled by polymer swelling and diffusion

Q.113 A major advantage of using 'nanoparticles' for ocular drug delivery is:

They completely bypass the corneal barrier
They improve drug residence time on the eye surface and enhance penetration
They make the eye change color
They require surgical implantation
Explanation - Nanoparticles can adhere to the ocular surface and penetrate the corneal epithelium more effectively than conventional drops.
Correct answer is: They improve drug residence time on the eye surface and enhance penetration

Q.114 Which of the following is a typical reason to employ a 'dual‑drug' delivery system?

To reduce manufacturing steps
To achieve synergistic therapeutic effects by delivering two drugs simultaneously
To increase the pill size for easier swallowing
To eliminate the need for a delivery vehicle
Explanation - Dual‑drug systems can target multiple pathways or provide combination therapy in a single dosage form.
Correct answer is: To achieve synergistic therapeutic effects by delivering two drugs simultaneously

Q.115 In the context of drug delivery, 'mucoadhesion' is most relevant to which administration route?

Intravenous injection
Pulmonary inhalation
Oral buccal or nasal delivery
Transdermal patch
Explanation - Mucoadhesive polymers stick to mucosal surfaces (e.g., buccal, nasal), extending residence time and improving absorption.
Correct answer is: Oral buccal or nasal delivery

Q.116 Which of the following is a primary benefit of using a 'polymer‑drug conjugate'?

Immediate release of the drug
Improved solubility and altered pharmacokinetics
Increased drug’s taste
Reduction of drug’s molecular weight
Explanation - Covalently linking drug to a polymer can enhance solubility, prolong circulation, and reduce toxicity.
Correct answer is: Improved solubility and altered pharmacokinetics

Q.117 A 'pulsatile' drug delivery system is designed to:

Release drug continuously at a constant rate
Release drug in bursts at predetermined intervals
Never release the drug
Release the drug only when the patient exercises
Explanation - Pulsatile systems mimic natural hormone spikes or circadian rhythms by delivering doses at specific times.
Correct answer is: Release drug in bursts at predetermined intervals

Q.118 Which of the following polymers is commonly used for making 'hydrogel' drug delivery matrices?

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
Polystyrene (PS)
Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE)
Explanation - PEG is hydrophilic, biocompatible, and forms hydrogels suitable for controlled drug release.
Correct answer is: Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

Q.119 In a 'controlled‑release' oral dosage form, the term 'lag time' refers to:

The time taken for the tablet to be manufactured
The delay before the drug begins to be released
The time required for the drug to be completely eliminated
The time needed for the patient to swallow the tablet
Explanation - Lag time is intentionally incorporated in some formulations to achieve delayed onset of action.
Correct answer is: The delay before the drug begins to be released

Q.120 Which of the following is a major challenge when designing an 'inhalable' drug delivery system?

Ensuring the drug reaches the deep lung alveoli without aggregation
Making the device waterproof
Providing a pleasant taste
Achieving high electrical conductivity
Explanation - Particle size (1‑5 µm) and aerodynamic properties must be optimized for deep lung deposition.
Correct answer is: Ensuring the drug reaches the deep lung alveoli without aggregation

Q.121 A 'targeted drug delivery' system that uses antibodies to recognize cancer cell antigens is an example of:

Passive targeting
Active targeting
Magnetic targeting
Thermal targeting
Explanation - Antibody‑conjugated carriers bind specifically to antigens on cancer cells, directing drug payload selectively.
Correct answer is: Active targeting

Q.122 Which of the following best describes the function of a 'permeation enhancer' in a transdermal patch?

To increase the drug’s taste
To temporarily disrupt the skin barrier and increase drug flux
To make the patch waterproof
To change the color of the drug
Explanation - Permeation enhancers interact with stratum corneum lipids, reducing resistance and facilitating drug passage.
Correct answer is: To temporarily disrupt the skin barrier and increase drug flux

Q.123 The term 'bioavailability' is most directly affected by which of the following?

Drug’s color
First‑pass metabolism
Packaging material
Shelf life of the product
Explanation - First‑pass metabolism reduces the fraction of the administered dose that reaches systemic circulation, lowering bioavailability.
Correct answer is: First‑pass metabolism

Q.124 Which of the following is a typical advantage of using 'nanoparticle' carriers for delivering nucleic acids (DNA/RNA)?

They increase the size of the nucleic acids
They protect nucleic acids from degradation and facilitate cellular uptake
They change the genetic code of the nucleic acids
They make nucleic acids visible under X‑ray
Explanation - Nanoparticles shield nucleic acids from nucleases and can be engineered to enhance endocytosis.
Correct answer is: They protect nucleic acids from degradation and facilitate cellular uptake

Q.125 In the context of drug delivery, the term 'burst release' is typically considered undesirable when:

A rapid therapeutic effect is needed
The drug has a narrow therapeutic index
The formulation is a vaccine
The drug is a vitamin supplement
Explanation - A sudden high dose can cause toxicity for drugs with a narrow safety margin.
Correct answer is: The drug has a narrow therapeutic index

Q.126 Which of the following statements about 'biodegradable' polymers is TRUE?

They never break down in the body
They degrade into non‑toxic by‑products that can be eliminated
They are always made of metal
They increase the drug’s half‑life indefinitely
Explanation - Biodegradable polymers like PLGA hydrolyze into lactic and glycolic acids, which are metabolized safely.
Correct answer is: They degrade into non‑toxic by‑products that can be eliminated

Q.127 Which of the following is a primary reason to use a 'microemulsion' rather than a 'macroemulsion' for drug delivery?

Microemulsions are larger and easier to handle
Microemulsions are thermodynamically stable and have nanoscale droplet size, enhancing absorption
Macroemulsions have better taste
Macroemulsions are more transparent
Explanation - Microemulsions have droplet sizes <100 nm, providing high surface area and stable drug solubilization.
Correct answer is: Microemulsions are thermodynamically stable and have nanoscale droplet size, enhancing absorption

Q.128 A drug delivery system that relies on the patient’s own metabolism to trigger drug release is known as:

Enzyme‑responsive system
Thermal‑responsive system
Magnetic‑responsive system
pH‑responsive system
Explanation - Enzyme‑responsive carriers are designed to degrade or open upon exposure to specific enzymes present in target tissues.
Correct answer is: Enzyme‑responsive system

Q.129 Which of the following is a common method for evaluating the in‑vitro drug release profile of a controlled‑release formulation?

Scanning electron microscopy (SEM)
Dissolution testing using USP apparatus
Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
Mass spectrometry (MS)
Explanation - Standard dissolution apparatus (e.g., USP I–IV) measures the amount of drug released over time under controlled conditions.
Correct answer is: Dissolution testing using USP apparatus